100 Food Handler Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. A guest bites into a salad and finds a piece of a broken plastic bin lid. How is this contaminant classified?

   • A.A chemical contaminant
   • B.An allergen
   • C.A physical contaminant✓ Answer
   • D.A biological contaminant

   Physical contaminants are foreign objects that get into food — glass, plastic, metal shavings, staples, bandages, fingernails, bones, jewelry or hair — and they can cut, choke or break a guest's teeth. Biological hazards are living organisms or their toxins (bacteria, viruses, parasites, fungi), and chemical hazards are substances such as cleaners, sanitizers or pesticides.

   Source: FDA Food Code, hazard classification (biological, chemical, physical); §3-101.11 Safe, Unadulterated and Honestly PresentedReport a problem with this question

2. 2. Why must high-acid foods such as tomato sauce, sauerkraut, or citrus juice never be stored or prepared in copper, brass, or galvanized containers?

   • A.The metal is a biological hazard because bacteria live inside it
   • B.The metal neutralizes the acid and raises the pH into the danger zone
   • C.The acid makes the food spoil faster than it would in plastic
   • D.The acid dissolves the metal into the food, causing chemical (toxic-metal) poisoning✓ Answer

   The Food Code limits the use of copper and similar metals (brass, zinc/galvanized, pewter) with acidic foods because the acid leaches metal ions into the food; eating them causes rapid-onset toxic-metal poisoning, which is a chemical hazard rather than spoilage.

   Source: FDA Food Code §4-101.15 Copper, Use Limitation; §4-101.13 Galvanized Metal, Use LimitationReport a problem with this question

3. 3. Which pathogen is one of the six highly infectious organisms that a food employee must report to the person in charge if diagnosed with it?

   • A.Norovirus✓ Answer
   • B.Clostridium perfringens
   • C.Bacillus cereus
   • D.Staphylococcus aureus

   The Food Code names six foodborne illnesses a diagnosed employee must report — Norovirus, hepatitis A virus, Shigella spp., Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, Salmonella Typhi and nontyphoidal Salmonella — because they pass easily from an infected person to food at very low infectious doses. The other three organisms listed cause illness mainly through time-temperature abuse of the food itself, not person-to-food transmission.

   Source: FDA Food Code §2-201.11(A)(2) (reportable diagnosed illnesses, the "Big 6")Report a problem with this question

4. 4. Hepatitis A virus mainly attacks which organ, producing the jaundice that a food employee must report?

   • A.The lungs
   • B.The stomach lining
   • C.The liver✓ Answer
   • D.The kidneys

   Hepatitis A is a virus that infects the liver; the damaged liver cannot clear bilirubin, so the skin and the whites of the eyes turn yellow (jaundice). Because an infected handler sheds virus in feces before symptoms appear, it spreads by the fecal-oral route on unwashed hands and through shellfish from contaminated water, which is why jaundice is a reportable condition.

   Source: FDA Food Code §2-201.11(A)(1)(c) and §2-201.11(A)(2) (hepatitis A virus; jaundice reportable)Report a problem with this question

5. 5. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC), which can cause bloody diarrhea and kidney failure, is most classically linked to which food?

   • A.Undercooked ground beef✓ Answer
   • B.Home-canned vegetables
   • C.Raw oysters
   • D.Cooked rice left at room temperature

   STEC lives in the intestines of cattle, and grinding spreads surface bacteria throughout the meat, so undercooked ground beef is the classic vehicle (along with produce and unpasteurized juice or milk contaminated with cattle feces). The other choices point to different organisms: room-temperature cooked rice to Bacillus cereus, raw oysters to Vibrio and hepatitis A, and home-canned vegetables to Clostridium botulinum.

   Source: FDA Food Code Annex 3, §3-401.11 (STEC; ground/comminuted meat)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. A kitchen cooks a large pot of beef gravy, leaves it on the counter to cool, then holds it lukewarm on a buffet. This is a textbook setup for which pathogen?

   • A.Listeria monocytogenes
   • B.Hepatitis A virus
   • C.Anisakis simplex
   • D.Clostridium perfringens✓ Answer

   Clostridium perfringens forms heat-resistant spores that survive cooking and then multiply rapidly in large, deep, slowly cooled or lukewarm batches of meat, poultry, gravy and stew. Because the spores are not killed by normal cooking, the control is rapid cooling and correct hot holding, not more cooking.

   Source: FDA Food Code Annex 3, §3-501.14 Cooling (Clostridium perfringens)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. A food handler with an infected cut touches ready-to-eat sandwiches with bare hands. The sandwiches are later heated, but guests still become ill. Why?

   • A.The bacteria multiply faster after the food is heated
   • B.Staphylococcus aureus grew in the food and released a toxin that heat does not destroy✓ Answer
   • C.Heating kills viruses but never kills bacteria
   • D.Heat turns the bacteria into spores, and the spores cause the illness

   Staphylococcus aureus lives on skin, in noses and especially in infected wounds; once it grows in food it releases a heat-stable toxin, so cooking or reheating can kill the bacteria and still leave the toxin intact. Prevention is handwashing, covering wounds, no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food, and keeping the food out of the temperature danger zone so the organism never grows enough to make toxin.

   Source: FDA Food Code §3-301.11 (no bare hand contact with ready-to-eat food); Annex 3 (Staphylococcus aureus heat-stable enterotoxin)Report a problem with this question

8. 8. Which pathogen is a special concern in ready-to-eat foods such as deli meats and soft cheeses because it keeps growing at refrigeration temperatures?

   • A.Bacillus cereus
   • B.Campylobacter jejuni
   • C.Vibrio vulnificus
   • D.Listeria monocytogenes✓ Answer

   Listeria monocytogenes is unusual because it multiplies slowly even at normal cold-holding temperatures, so refrigeration alone does not stop it. That is the reason ready-to-eat TCS food held longer than 24 hours must be date marked and discarded after a limited number of days, and why it is so dangerous to pregnant women, older adults and immunocompromised guests.

   Source: FDA Food Code §3-501.17 Ready-to-Eat, TCS Food, Date Marking; Annex 3 (Listeria monocytogenes growth at refrigeration temperatures)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. What is the single most important control for Vibrio illness from raw oysters?

   • A.Freezing the oysters overnight before service
   • B.Serving them on ice with lemon and hot sauce
   • C.Rinsing the oysters under cold running water before shucking
   • D.Buying shellfish only from approved, reputable suppliers, with the shellstock identification tags kept on file✓ Answer

   Vibrio is naturally present in the tissue of shellfish taken from warm harvest waters, so it cannot be rinsed off, chilled away, or killed by acid such as lemon juice. Safety depends entirely on harvest from approved waters, documented by shellstock identification tags that must stay with the container and be kept on file after the last shellfish is used.

   Source: FDA Food Code §3-201.15 Molluscan Shellfish from NSSP Listed Sources; §3-202.18 Shellstock IdentificationReport a problem with this question

10. 10. Clostridium botulinum produces its deadly toxin under which condition?

    • A.A very acidic environment, such as vinegar-based pickles
    • B.A very dry environment, such as flour or ground spices
    • C.An oxygen-free environment, such as a sealed or damaged can, a reduced-oxygen package, or garlic held in oil✓ Answer
    • D.A cold environment, at 41°F (5°C) or below

    Clostridium botulinum is an anaerobic spore-former: it needs an oxygen-free, low-acid, moist environment at warm temperatures to germinate and make toxin. That is why swollen, dented or leaking cans must be rejected, why untreated garlic-and-oil mixtures are treated as TCS food, and why reduced-oxygen packaging such as sous vide requires a HACCP plan and a variance.

    Source: FDA Food Code §3-502.12 Reduced Oxygen Packaging; §1-201.10 TCS Food definition (garlic-in-oil); Annex 3 (Clostridium botulinum)Report a problem with this question

11. 11. Cooked rice held at room temperature for several hours can make guests sick even though it was cooked thoroughly. What explains this?

    • A.Rice is not a TCS food, so bacteria multiply faster in it
    • B.Viruses multiply in the starch as soon as the rice cools
    • C.Bacillus cereus spores survive cooking and then germinate and grow once the rice sits in the temperature danger zone✓ Answer
    • D.Cooking rice creates a chemical toxin as the rice cools

    Spores are dormant, heat-resistant forms of certain bacteria: normal cooking kills the growing cells but not the spores, and moist, near-neutral cooked rice held in the danger zone lets them germinate and produce toxin — one of which is heat stable, so reheating will not make the rice safe. The control is keeping the rice out of the danger zone by hot holding or cooling it quickly.

    Source: FDA Food Code Annex 3, §3-501.14 / §3-501.16 (Bacillus cereus spores in cooked rice and other heat-treated plant food)Report a problem with this question

12. 12. FAT TOM lists the six conditions bacteria need to grow. Which two does a food handler control most directly in everyday operations?

    • A.Food and Moisture
    • B.Acidity and Oxygen
    • C.Oxygen and Moisture
    • D.Temperature and Time✓ Answer

    FAT TOM stands for Food, Acidity, Temperature, Time, Oxygen and Moisture. A product's nutrients, pH, water content and packaging atmosphere are largely fixed by the recipe and the supplier, so the two levers left in the kitchen are how hot or cold the food is kept and how long it is allowed to stay in the temperature danger zone — which is why nearly every operational control is a time or temperature control.

    Source: FDA Food Code Annex 3 (factors affecting microbial growth: FAT TOM); §3-501.16 Temperature and Time ControlReport a problem with this question

13. 13. How does the Food Code require parasites such as Anisakis to be destroyed in fish that will be served raw or undercooked?

    • A.By marinating the fish in citrus juice or vinegar for at least 2 hours
    • B.By rinsing the fillets under cold running water before service
    • C.By freezing it at -4°F (-20°C) or below for 168 hours (7 days) in a freezer✓ Answer
    • D.By holding the fish at 41°F (5°C) or below for 24 hours

    Parasites in fish are destroyed by freezing, not by acid, rinsing or refrigeration: the Food Code's freezer parameter is -4°F (-20°C) or below for 168 hours, with a blast-freezer alternative of -31°F (-35°C) for 15 hours. Ceviche-style citrus marinades do not kill parasites, and a few categories such as certain tuna species and aquacultured fish raised on pathogen-free feed are exempt from the freezing requirement.

    Source: FDA Food Code §3-402.11 Parasite Destruction; §3-402.12 RecordsReport a problem with this question

14. 14. Which statement about viruses such as Norovirus in a food operation is correct?

    • A.Viruses form spores that survive cooking and later germinate
    • B.Viruses do not grow in food; they need a living host and are usually carried into food by an infected person's hands✓ Answer
    • C.Viruses grow fastest in food held in the temperature danger zone
    • D.Viruses can only cause illness in raw food, never in cooked food

    Viruses can only reproduce inside the living cells of a host, so food is merely a vehicle that carries them — holding food cold or hot does not reduce a viral load the way it limits bacterial growth. Because it takes only a tiny number of particles to infect, the effective controls are excluding ill employees, thorough handwashing and no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food; cooked food contaminated after cooking is just as dangerous as raw food.

    Source: FDA Food Code Annex 3 (viruses do not multiply in food); §2-201.11 Exclusions and Restrictions; §3-301.11 Preventing Contamination from HandsReport a problem with this question

15. 15. Which of the following is a TCS (time/temperature control for safety) food?

    • A.Cut cantaloupe✓ Answer
    • B.Unopened bottled vinegar
    • C.A whole, uncut cantaloupe
    • D.Dry uncooked rice

    A food is TCS when it is moist, rich in protein or carbohydrate, and near-neutral in acidity, so pathogens can multiply or form toxin quickly. Cutting a melon exposes the moist flesh and drags any pathogens from the rind into it, which makes cut melon TCS; the intact rind protects a whole melon, dry rice lacks the moisture bacteria need, and vinegar is far too acidic to support growth.

    Source: FDA Food Code §1-201.10(B) Time/Temperature Control for Safety Food, definitionReport a problem with this question

16. 16. A guest eats seared tuna and within minutes has facial flushing, headache, and a peppery burning taste in the mouth. Cooking the fish more thoroughly would not have prevented this. Why?

    • A.The illness is caused by a virus that survives searing
    • B.The tuna carried a parasite that cooking cannot kill
    • C.The guest is having an allergic reaction, which cooking normally prevents
    • D.Histamine (scombrotoxin) forms when the fish is temperature-abused, and it is not destroyed by cooking or freezing✓ Answer

    In scombroid species such as tuna, mahi-mahi and bonito, bacteria convert the fish's natural histidine into histamine whenever the fish is held too warm after harvest, and that toxin is heat stable — cooking, freezing and canning all leave it intact. The only controls are buying from approved, reputable suppliers and keeping the fish cold through receiving, storage and preparation.

    Source: FDA Food Code Annex 3 (scombrotoxin/histamine formation); §3-201.11 Compliance with Food Law (approved sources)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. What is the difference between cross-contact and cross-contamination?

    • A.Cross-contact happens only in the dining room and cross-contamination only in the kitchen
    • B.Cross-contact applies to chemicals and cross-contamination applies to allergens
    • C.Cross-contact is the transfer of an allergen from one food to another; cross-contamination is the transfer of pathogens✓ Answer
    • D.They are two names for exactly the same thing

    Cross-contact is the accidental transfer of an allergen protein — through a shared fryer, cutting board, utensil, glove or grill surface — and the amount involved is harmless to most guests but can be life-threatening to an allergic one, because heat does not destroy the allergen. Cross-contamination is the transfer of pathogens from one surface or food to another, and it can be controlled by cooking, cleaning and sanitizing; the two hazards need different prevention steps.

    Source: FDA Food Code §1-201.10 Major Food Allergen definition; Annex 3 (allergen cross-contact); §2-102.11(C)(9) PIC allergen knowledgeReport a problem with this question

18. 18. Minutes after being served, a guest breaks out in hives and is now wheezing, with swelling of the lips and throat. What should staff do?

    • A.Offer a replacement dish made without the suspected ingredient
    • B.Have the guest fill out an incident report form before doing anything else
    • C.Bring a glass of water and wait about 30 minutes to see whether it improves
    • D.Treat it as anaphylaxis: call emergency services immediately and notify the manager✓ Answer

    Hives, itching, and swelling of the face or hands can signal a mild reaction, but wheezing, shortness of breath, or swelling of the lips, tongue and throat means the airway is closing — that is anaphylaxis, which can be fatal within minutes. Emergency medical help must be summoned right away; waiting, offering water, or replacing the dish only delays treatment.

    Source: FDA Food Code §2-102.11(C)(9) (PIC knowledge of major food allergens and symptoms); Annex 3 (allergic reaction and anaphylaxis)Report a problem with this question

19. 19. A guest orders a dish prepared without peanuts because of a peanut allergy. What must the kitchen do?

    • A.Prepare the order using equipment and utensils that have been washed, rinsed and sanitized, with clean gloves and oil and surfaces that were not used for the allergen✓ Answer
    • B.Rinse the finished food under running water to wash the allergen off
    • C.Cook the dish as usual and pick the peanuts off the plate before serving it
    • D.Use the same fryer oil, since frying temperatures destroy the allergen

    Allergen proteins are not destroyed by cooking or frying and cannot be picked or rinsed out of a finished dish, and trace amounts left on a shared utensil, board or fryer oil are enough to trigger a reaction. The only reliable control is to keep the allergen away from the order from the start: clean and sanitize equipment and utensils, change gloves and wash hands, use separate oil and surfaces, and have staff able to state the ingredients and how the dish is prepared.

    Source: FDA Food Code §2-102.11(C)(9) (PIC allergen knowledge); §4-602.11 Equipment Food-Contact Surfaces, Cleaning Frequency; Annex 3 (allergen cross-contact)Report a problem with this question

20. 20. What is the purpose of a food defense program?

    • A.To protect food from deliberate, intentional contamination by controlling access to food, supplies and the facility✓ Answer
    • B.To reduce food waste and control portion costs
    • C.To prevent accidental cross-contamination between raw and ready-to-eat food
    • D.To document cooking temperatures for the health inspector

    Food defense addresses contamination that someone causes on purpose — by a disgruntled employee, a vandal, a competitor or a terrorist — whose motive is to cause harm, which is different from the accidental contamination that food safety programs address. Practical measures include buying only from known approved suppliers, supervising deliveries, limiting and monitoring who can reach food, chemicals and storage areas, keeping chemical and storage areas secured, and training staff to report anything suspicious.

    Source: FDA Food Code Annex 2 / FDA food defense guidance (ALERT: Assure, Look, Employees, Reports, Threat)Report a problem with this question

21. 21. Under the FDA Food Code, what is the temperature danger zone for TCS (time/temperature control for safety) food?

    • A.70°F to 125°F (21°C to 52°C)
    • B.45°F to 140°F (7°C to 60°C)
    • C.32°F to 100°F (0°C to 38°C)
    • D.41°F to 135°F (5°C to 57°C)✓ Answer

    The Food Code requires cold TCS food to be held at 41°F (5°C) or below and hot TCS food at 135°F (57°C) or above, so the span between those two control limits is the danger zone in which pathogens can multiply to unsafe numbers. 45°F is an ambient-air limit for unpasteurized shell eggs, not the danger-zone boundary, and 70°F to 125°F is only the fastest-growth core inside the zone.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.16(A)Report a problem with this question

22. 22. Within the temperature danger zone, why is roughly 70°F to 125°F (21°C to 52°C) considered the most hazardous band?

    • A.Because most foodborne pathogens multiply most rapidly at those temperatures✓ Answer
    • B.Because spoilage bacteria produce visible mold fastest in that range
    • C.Because water activity in food rises sharply above 70°F
    • D.Because chemical preservatives break down at those temperatures

    The danger zone is defined entirely by pathogen growth rate, and the bacteria of greatest concern in retail food reproduce fastest at warm room-to-body temperatures, so food passing through this band should spend as little time in it as possible. Growth slows sharply as food approaches 41°F and is halted above 135°F. Visible spoilage is not the hazard being controlled — dangerous pathogen growth produces no change you can see, smell, or taste.

    Source: FDA Food Code 1-201.10(B) definition of TCS food; control limits at 3-501.16Report a problem with this question

23. 23. A cook is roasting whole chickens. Under the FDA Food Code, what minimum internal temperature and hold time must the poultry reach?

    • A.135°F (57°C) for 15 seconds
    • B.145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds
    • C.165°F (74°C) for less than 1 second (instantaneous)✓ Answer
    • D.155°F (68°C) for 17 seconds

    Poultry is placed in the highest cooking-temperature category because it carries a high likelihood of Salmonella and Campylobacter distributed through the muscle and cavity, so the Food Code requires 165°F (74°C) held for less than one second — an instantaneous reading. The same 165°F category also covers baluts, wild game animals, and any stuffed meat, fish, pasta, or poultry.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-401.11(A)(3)Report a problem with this question

24. 24. A line cook pulls a raw ground beef patty off the grill at 145°F, saying "it's beef, same as a steak." What does the FDA Food Code actually require for the patty?

    • A.130°F (54°C) for 112 minutes
    • B.155°F (68°C) for 17 seconds, because grinding spreads surface pathogens throughout the meat✓ Answer
    • C.165°F (74°C) instantaneous, the same as poultry
    • D.145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds, the same as an intact steak

    On an intact cut, pathogens sit on the outside surface and are destroyed quickly by grill heat, which is why whole-muscle steak qualifies at 145°F. Grinding, mechanical tenderizing, or injecting drives that surface contamination into the cold center, so the Food Code raises comminuted and non-intact meat to 155°F (68°C) for 17 seconds. Equivalent combinations on the same chart include 145°F for 3 minutes and 158°F for less than 1 second.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-401.11(A)(2)Report a problem with this question

25. 25. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature and hold time for an intact whole-muscle pork chop cooked to order?

    • A.135°F (57°C) for 15 seconds
    • B.165°F (74°C) for less than 1 second
    • C.155°F (68°C) for 17 seconds
    • D.145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds✓ Answer

    Pork is treated the same as any other intact whole-muscle meat under the Food Code: contamination is limited to the exterior surface, so 145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds achieves the required pathogen reduction. The widespread belief that pork needs 165°F is a holdover from historic trichinosis concerns and is not the current model-code requirement; the same 145°F/15-second category also covers fish and shell eggs broken and cooked for immediate service.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-401.11(A)(1)Report a problem with this question

26. 26. A kitchen is cooking meat-stuffed pasta shells from raw. What minimum internal temperature applies?

    • A.145°F (63°C) for 15 seconds
    • B.165°F (74°C) for less than 1 second✓ Answer
    • C.135°F (57°C) for 15 seconds
    • D.155°F (68°C) for 17 seconds

    Stuffed foods and stuffing containing raw animal food go into the 165°F (74°C) category because the stuffing insulates the center, slowing heat penetration and leaving a cool core where pathogens can survive the cook. This applies to stuffed pasta, stuffed meat, stuffed fish, and stuffed poultry alike, regardless of the temperature the filling would need on its own.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-401.11(A)(3)Report a problem with this question

27. 27. Rice and steamed broccoli are being cooked to go onto a hot buffet line. What minimum cooking temperature does the FDA Food Code specify for these plant foods?

    • A.135°F (57°C)✓ Answer
    • B.145°F (63°C)
    • C.165°F (74°C)
    • D.155°F (68°C)

    Fruits, vegetables, grains such as rice and pasta, and legumes such as beans that are cooked for hot holding must reach 135°F (57°C) — the same value as the hot-holding limit, so the food never sits inside the danger zone on the buffet. This is a separate Food Code section from the raw-animal-food cooking chart, which is why none of the 145/155/165 values apply.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-401.12Report a problem with this question

28. 28. A pot of chili comes off the stove at 135°F. The cooling log shows: 90°F at the 2-hour mark, and 41°F at 5.5 hours after cooling began. Is this cooling compliant with the FDA Food Code?

    • A.Not compliant, because all cooling must be finished within 4 hours
    • B.Not compliant, because it did not reach 70°F within the first 2 hours✓ Answer
    • C.Compliant, because it reached 41°F within 6 hours
    • D.Compliant, because the temperature was already below 135°F at the 2-hour check

    Two-stage cooling sets two independent checkpoints that must both be met: 135°F down to 70°F within 2 hours, and 135°F down to 41°F within 6 hours total. The first stage covers the warmest, fastest-growth part of the curve, so unused time from the 6-hour total may never be borrowed to excuse a missed 2-hour stage. Food that is still above 70°F at 2 hours must be reheated to 165°F and cooled again from the start, or discarded.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.14(A)Report a problem with this question

29. 29. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to cool a large batch of hot soup?

    • A.Dividing it into shallow pans and leaving them loosely covered
    • B.Placing the full, tightly covered stockpot directly into the walk-in cooler✓ Answer
    • C.Adding part of the recipe's water as ice
    • D.Setting the container in an ice-water bath and stirring frequently

    All approved cooling methods work by increasing the rate of heat transfer out of the food — reducing depth, increasing surface area, agitating, or adding cold mass. A deep, tightly sealed stockpot does the opposite: the mass insulates itself, the lid traps heat, and the center can stay in the danger zone for many hours while the surface reads cold. The Food Code specifically requires cooling containers to be arranged for maximum heat transfer and left loosely covered or uncovered.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.15Report a problem with this question

30. 30. A deli makes chicken salad from canned chicken, mayonnaise, and celery, all at room temperature — nothing is cooked. Within how long must the finished salad be cooled to 41°F (5°C)?

    • A.4 hours✓ Answer
    • B.There is no cooling time limit because the food was never cooked
    • C.6 hours
    • D.2 hours

    The two-stage 2-hour/6-hour rule applies to food cooled from cooking temperatures. Food prepared from ingredients that start at ambient temperature — reconstituted or canned products like this salad — never passes through the hottest part of the curve, so the Food Code gives it a single requirement: reach 41°F within 4 hours. It is still TCS food, so "no limit" is never correct.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.14(B)Report a problem with this question

31. 31. What is the minimum temperature at which hot TCS food must be held on a steam table?

    • A.130°F (54°C)
    • B.135°F (57°C)✓ Answer
    • C.125°F (52°C)
    • D.140°F (60°C)

    Hot TCS food must be maintained at 135°F (57°C) or above because bacterial growth is arrested at and above that temperature, which is why 135°F is also the top boundary of the danger zone. 140°F is the value from older codes and is a common distractor. Note also that hot-holding equipment is designed only to hold food already at temperature — it may not be used to cook or to reheat.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.16(A)(1)Report a problem with this question

32. 32. A whole beef roast was cooked using the Food Code's roast time/temperature parameters. What is the lowest temperature at which this roast may legally be hot held?

    • A.140°F (60°C)
    • B.145°F (63°C)
    • C.135°F (57°C)
    • D.130°F (54°C)✓ Answer

    Whole-meat roasts of beef, corned beef, lamb, pork, and cured ham are the one hot-holding exception in the Food Code: because they are cooked using an extended time-and-temperature chart (as low as 130°F held for 112 minutes) that already delivers the required lethality, they may be hot held at 130°F (54°C) or above. Every other TCS food still requires 135°F, so this carve-out is easy to over-apply.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.16(A)(1), referencing 3-401.11(B)Report a problem with this question

33. 33. At the start of a shift, a manager finds sliced deli meats in a cold-holding drawer reading 50°F (10°C). No one knows how long the drawer has been warm. What is the correct action?

    • A.Serve it within the next 4 hours under time control
    • B.Move it to the freezer and use it later
    • C.Reheat it to 165°F and return it to the cold-holding unit
    • D.Discard it, because the length of time above 41°F cannot be documented✓ Answer

    Cold TCS food must be held at 41°F (5°C) or below, and once it is above that limit the only thing that keeps it safe is a documented, limited exposure time. Time as a public health control cannot be applied retroactively — it requires written procedures and a marked start time from the moment the food leaves temperature control. Freezing only pauses further growth and reheating does not destroy heat-stable toxins that bacteria may already have produced, so discarding is the only defensible corrective action.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.16(A)(2); 3-501.19Report a problem with this question

34. 34. Raw shell eggs that have not been treated to destroy Salmonellae must be stored in refrigeration equipment that maintains which of the following?

    • A.A product temperature of 41°F (5°C) or below
    • B.An ambient air temperature of 41°F (5°C) or less
    • C.An ambient air temperature of 45°F (7°C) or less✓ Answer
    • D.A product temperature of 45°F (7°C) or below

    This is an equipment specification, not a food specification: the shell provides a physical barrier, so the Food Code controls the storage environment rather than the internal egg temperature, requiring equipment that maintains ambient air at 45°F (7°C) or less. Two traps are built into this item — confusing 45°F with the 41°F product limit for other cold TCS food, and confusing ambient air temperature with the temperature of the food itself.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.16(B)Report a problem with this question

35. 35. Leftover gravy is taken from the cooler at 38°F and placed directly in a steam table well. It reaches 165°F after about 3 hours and is then held for service. Evaluate this practice.

    • A.Not acceptable, because the reheat must carry the food from 41°F to 165°F within 2 hours✓ Answer
    • B.Not acceptable, because gravy must be reheated to 175°F
    • C.Acceptable, because it eventually reached 165°F
    • D.Acceptable, because a steam table is approved equipment for reheating

    Reheating TCS food for hot holding has two separate requirements: it must reach 165°F (74°C) for 15 seconds, and the reheat must be rapid, spending no more than 2 hours between 41°F and that target. A slow 3-hour climb parks the food in the danger zone long enough for surviving spores to germinate and multiply even though the final reading is correct. Hot-holding equipment such as a steam table is designed to hold food, not to bring it up through the danger zone.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-403.11(A) and 3-403.11(D)Report a problem with this question

36. 36. A commercially processed, hermetically sealed container of ready-to-eat cheese sauce is opened and reheated to be placed on a hot-holding line. What minimum temperature must it reach?

    • A.165°F (74°C)
    • B.145°F (63°C)
    • C.155°F (68°C)
    • D.135°F (57°C)✓ Answer

    Commercially processed ready-to-eat food from an intact, hermetically sealed package was already rendered safe by the manufacturer's process, so reheating only has to bring it to the hot-holding minimum of 135°F (57°C). The 165°F requirement applies to food that was cooked, cooled, and reheated in the establishment, where handling after cooking creates a new contamination opportunity. The 2-hour rapid-reheat limit still applies in both cases.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-403.11(C)Report a problem with this question

37. 37. A deli prepares tuna salad in-house on Monday and holds it at 41°F (5°C). Under the FDA Food Code date-marking rule, what is the last day it may be sold or served?

    • A.The following Tuesday
    • B.Sunday of the same week✓ Answer
    • C.Friday of the same week
    • D.Wednesday of the same week

    Refrigerated ready-to-eat TCS food held more than 24 hours must carry a date mark and may be kept a maximum of 7 days at 41°F or below, because Listeria monocytogenes can slowly grow even at refrigeration temperatures. The day of preparation counts as Day 1, so Monday is Day 1 and the food must be consumed, sold, or discarded by the end of Day 7, which is Sunday. For commercially processed ready-to-eat food, the count starts on the day the original container is opened.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.17(A)Report a problem with this question

38. 38. Which statement correctly describes the 6-hour option for using time — rather than temperature — as a public health control?

    • A.It requires no written marking as long as staff remember the removal time
    • B.It allows unsold food to be re-chilled and used again the next day
    • C.It may be used only for food that begins at 41°F (5°C) or below, and the food must be discarded if it ever exceeds 70°F (21°C)✓ Answer
    • D.It may also be used for hot food taken off a 135°F steam table

    The 6-hour option exists only for food starting cold, because the safety case rests on the food warming slowly from refrigeration and being monitored so it never passes 70°F — there is no 6-hour version for hot food. The food must be marked with both the removal time and the 6-hour expiry, and discard is mandatory at 6 hours or the moment it exceeds 70°F; it may never be re-chilled or reheated back into service. Written procedures must exist in advance and be available to the regulatory authority.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.19(C)Report a problem with this question

39. 39. Using the ice-point method to calibrate a food thermometer, what should a correctly calibrated thermometer read when its sensing area is fully immersed in an ice-water slurry?

    • A.32°F (0°C)✓ Answer
    • B.212°F (100°C)
    • C.41°F (5°C)
    • D.0°F (-18°C)

    Ice and liquid water in equilibrium sit at exactly 32°F (0°C) regardless of altitude, which makes an ice-water slurry a reliable fixed reference point for calibration. The boiling-point method uses 212°F (100°C) but is only valid at sea level and must be adjusted for elevation, which is why the ice-point method is preferred. The Food Code requires food thermometers to be calibrated as necessary per manufacturer specification, and a Fahrenheit-only food thermometer must be accurate to within ±2°F.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-502.11(B); accuracy specification 4-203.11Report a problem with this question

40. 40. A cook must verify the internal temperature of a thin fish filet on the grill. Which approach is correct?

    • A.Use a thermocouple or thermistor with a thin probe inserted into the thickest part, sanitized before use✓ Answer
    • B.Lay any thermometer against the grill grate next to the filet for a faster reading
    • C.Aim an infrared thermometer at the surface of the filet
    • D.Push a bimetallic stemmed thermometer about a quarter inch into the filet

    Thin foods require a temperature measuring device with a small-diameter probe, and thermocouples and thermistors sense at the very tip, so they can read the geometric center of a thin filet. An infrared thermometer measures surface temperature only and can never verify internal doneness; a bimetallic stemmed thermometer senses along a 2-to-3-inch stem, so a quarter-inch insertion averages in air and pan heat; and reading the grate measures the equipment, not the food. The probe must be cleaned and sanitized between uses to avoid carrying pathogens from one food to another.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-302.12(B); 4-601.11 / 4-703.11 probe cleaning and sanitizingReport a problem with this question

41. 41. A line cook washes up at the handwashing sink. Under the FDA Food Code, how long must the whole handwashing procedure take, and how long must the vigorous scrubbing part last?

    • A.At least 20 seconds in total, including at least 10–15 seconds of vigorous scrubbing✓ Answer
    • B.At least 10–15 seconds in total, of which 20 seconds is vigorous scrubbing
    • C.At least 2 minutes in total, including 60 seconds of vigorous scrubbing
    • D.At least 5 seconds in total, with no minimum scrubbing time

    The Code sets a minimum total cleaning time of 20 seconds for hands and exposed arms; inside that total, the hands and arms must be rubbed together vigorously for at least 10–15 seconds. The two numbers describe different things — the 20 seconds covers the whole sequence (pre-rinse, soap, scrub, rinse, dry) — so a 15-second scrub with no rinsing or drying time does not meet the requirement.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-301.12(A) and 2-301.12(B)(3)Report a problem with this question

42. 42. Which sequence follows the Food Code handwashing procedure in the correct order?

    • A.Rinse with cold water → apply hand sanitizer → rub in → let air dry
    • B.Rinse under clean warm running water → apply soap → scrub hands and exposed arms for at least 10–15 seconds → rinse thoroughly → immediately dry with an approved method✓ Answer
    • C.Rub soap onto dry hands → rinse once → wipe on a shared cloth towel
    • D.Apply soap → scrub → dry hands on a clean apron → rinse with warm water

    Order matters because each step enables the next: the pre-rinse wets the skin so the cleaning compound lathers, the scrub supplies the friction that physically lifts soil and microorganisms from under the fingernails and between the fingers, and the procedure must end with immediate drying by an approved method (single-use paper towels, a continuous clean-towel system, or a hand dryer). Drying on an apron or a shared cloth towel recontaminates hands that were just cleaned.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-301.12(B); drying methods 6-301.12Report a problem with this question

43. 43. The handwashing sink in the prep area is stacked with cases of produce, so a cook rinses his hands in the food preparation sink instead. What is wrong here?

    • A.Only the handwashing location is a problem — a handwash sink may hold storage when space is tight
    • B.Only the storage is a problem — a food prep sink is an acceptable backup for handwashing
    • C.Both are violations: the handwashing sink must stay accessible and be used for nothing but handwashing, and hands may never be washed in a food preparation sink✓ Answer
    • D.Nothing, as long as the prep sink is cleaned and sanitized afterward

    A handwashing sink must be kept accessible at all times and may not be used for any purpose other than handwashing, and food employees may not wash their hands in a sink used for food preparation or warewashing, or in a service sink or curbed mop-water facility. Washing in a prep sink deposits soil and pathogens from hands onto a surface that later contacts food, and a blocked handwash sink predictably leads to skipped handwashing.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-301.15; 5-205.11(A)-(B)Report a problem with this question

44. 44. A food handler is about to put on single-use gloves to assemble sandwiches. What must she do first?

    • A.Apply hand sanitizer instead of washing, since the gloves are the real barrier
    • B.Wash and dry her hands and exposed arms, then put the gloves on✓ Answer
    • C.Nothing — handwashing is required only when gloves are not worn
    • D.Put the gloves on first and then wash the gloved hands with soap and water

    The Code requires handwashing immediately before donning gloves to start a task that involves working with food. Gloves are pulled on by hand and can tear or be contaminated in the process, so any pathogens left on unwashed hands end up on the glove's outer surface and then in the food. Gloves are an added barrier on top of clean hands, never a replacement for washing them.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-301.14(H); 3-304.15(A)Report a problem with this question

45. 45. A cook finishes portioning raw chicken while wearing gloves and is then asked to slice lettuce for salads. What must he do?

    • A.Spray the gloves with sanitizer solution and change tasks
    • B.Keep the same gloves, since they never touched the lettuce
    • C.Take off and throw away the gloves, wash his hands, then put on a new pair✓ Answer
    • D.Rinse the gloves under hot running water and keep working

    Handwashing is required when switching between working with raw food and working with ready-to-eat food, and as often as needed during preparation when tasks change. Single-use gloves may be used for only one task and must be discarded, not rinsed or sanitized — raw poultry juices remain on the glove surface, and hands under the glove can be contaminated through pinholes or during removal, so lettuce that gets no further cook step would be directly contaminated.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-301.14(F)-(G); 3-304.15(A)Report a problem with this question

46. 46. How may a hand antiseptic (hand sanitizer) be used in a food establishment?

    • A.Only on hands that have already been washed using the required handwashing procedure✓ Answer
    • B.As a complete replacement for handwashing whenever the handwashing sink is busy
    • C.As the only hand treatment needed before touching ready-to-eat food with bare hands
    • D.In place of washing after using the toilet room, provided it is alcohol-based

    The Code allows a hand antiseptic to be applied only to hands that have been cleaned as specified in the handwashing procedure. Antiseptics do not remove soil, and they are unreliable against some key foodborne pathogens — notably Norovirus — so they cannot supply the mechanical removal that soap, friction and running water provide. Sanitizer supplements handwashing; it never substitutes for it.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-301.16(A)(3) and (B)Report a problem with this question

47. 47. A deli worker must place sliced turkey and cheese onto a sub roll. Which method is acceptable under the Food Code?

    • A.Bare hands, after applying an approved hand antiseptic
    • B.Tongs, deli tissue, a spatula, single-use gloves, or dispensing equipment✓ Answer
    • C.Bare hands, as long as the sandwich is served within 4 hours
    • D.Bare hands, after washing them for a full 20 seconds

    Food employees may not contact exposed ready-to-eat food with their bare hands; they must use a suitable utensil or barrier such as deli tissue, spatulas, tongs, single-use gloves or dispensing equipment. Even freshly washed hands carry transient pathogens such as Norovirus and hepatitis A virus, which are shed in enormous numbers, and ready-to-eat food receives no further cook step to destroy them. The narrow exceptions (for example washing fruits and vegetables, or adding an ingredient to food that will be cooked to a required temperature) and any bare-hand-contact procedure require the approval of the regulatory authority.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-301.11(B), with exceptions in 3-301.11(D)-(E)Report a problem with this question

48. 48. Which single-use glove practice complies with the Food Code?

    • A.Wear one pair for the whole shift as long as they are not visibly dirty
    • B.Use one pair for both raw and cooked food as long as the raw food is handled last
    • C.Wash the gloves with soap and water between tasks and reuse them
    • D.Throw the gloves away and wash hands when they tear or become soiled, when the task changes, or when the operation is interrupted✓ Answer

    Single-use gloves may be used for only one task, may not be used for any other purpose, and must be discarded when damaged or soiled or when interruptions occur in the operation. Washing a single-use glove does not restore it: soap and water degrade the thin film, pathogens persist in micro-tears and folds, and the wearer gets a false sense of protection while cross-contaminating everything the glove touches.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-304.15(A)Report a problem with this question

49. 49. A prep cook has a small cut on her finger and will continue working with exposed food. What does the Food Code require?

    • A.Cover the cut with an impermeable bandage or finger cot, and cover that with a single-use glove✓ Answer
    • B.Put on a single-use glove without covering the cut
    • C.Cover the cut with a cloth adhesive strip; a glove is not needed
    • D.Leave the cut uncovered so it can dry, and wash hands more often

    If an impermeable cover such as a bandage, finger cot or finger stall is on the wrist, hand or finger of a food employee working with exposed food, it must be covered with a single-use glove. The impermeable layer keeps wound fluid — a common source of Staphylococcus aureus, which produces a heat-stable toxin — out of the food, and the glove keeps the bandage itself from loosening and falling into the food. Separately, an infected lesion containing pus that is open or draining and cannot be properly covered must be reported to the person in charge.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-401.13; reporting under 2-201.11(A)(1)(e)Report a problem with this question

50. 50. A food handler comes to work wearing nail polish. Under the Food Code, when may she work with exposed food?

    • A.Only while wearing intact gloves in good repair✓ Answer
    • B.Never — nail polish and artificial nails are banned with no exception
    • C.Any time, as long as her nails are trimmed and filed
    • D.Only if she applies a hand antiseptic before each task

    The Code prohibits fingernail polish and artificial fingernails while working with exposed food unless the employee is wearing intact gloves in good repair — the glove exception is part of the rule, which is why a flat 'never' is wrong. The concern is physical and microbiological: polish can chip into food, and artificial nails trap soil and moisture and can detach. Fingernails must in all cases be trimmed, filed and maintained so the edges and surfaces are cleanable and not rough.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-302.11(A)-(B)Report a problem with this question

51. 51. While preparing food, which item may a food employee wear on the hands or arms?

    • A.A medical information bracelet
    • B.A beaded bracelet
    • C.A wristwatch
    • D.A plain ring such as a wedding band✓ Answer

    The only jewelry allowed on the hands and arms during food preparation is a plain ring such as a wedding band; the prohibition expressly includes medical information jewelry, and because it covers arms as well as hands, watches and bracelets are out. Stones, settings, links and clasps trap soil and cannot be cleaned effectively, and jewelry can loosen into food or tear a glove. An employee who needs medical identification can wear it somewhere other than the hands and arms, such as on a necklace.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-303.11Report a problem with this question

52. 52. Which statement about work attire is correct under the Food Code?

    • A.Food employees must wear clean outer clothing and effective hair restraints, including beard restraints where needed✓ Answer
    • B.Hair restraints are required only for employees whose hair is longer than shoulder length
    • C.A soiled apron is fine if a clean jacket is worn over it
    • D.Every employee without exception, including hostesses and beverage-only counter staff, must wear a hair net

    The Code requires clean outer clothing to prevent contamination of food, equipment, utensils, linens and single-service articles, and requires hair restraints — hats, hair coverings or nets, beard restraints and clothing that covers body hair — designed and worn to keep hair off exposed food and clean equipment; the length of the hair is not the test. The restraint requirement does have a narrow exemption for staff who present minimal risk, such as counter staff serving only beverages and wrapped or packaged food, hostesses and wait staff, which is why the 'no exception' option is wrong. Aprons should be changed when soiled and removed before leaving the food preparation area, for example to take out garbage or use the restroom.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-402.11(A)-(B); 2-304.11Report a problem with this question

53. 53. A cook wants to drink coffee during service. What does the Food Code allow?

    • A.Drink from a closed beverage container handled so that the hands, the container, exposed food and clean equipment are not contaminated✓ Answer
    • B.Nothing may be eaten or drunk anywhere in the establishment at any time
    • C.Eat and drink at the prep table as long as the food is covered
    • D.Drink from an open cup kept on the prep table

    Employees may eat, drink or use tobacco products only in designated areas where contamination of exposed food, clean equipment, utensils and linens, and unwrapped single-service articles cannot result. The one exception is that a food employee may drink from a closed beverage container if it is handled to prevent contamination of the hands, the container, and food and food-contact items — a closed container with a lid keeps the lip-contact area protected, whereas an open cup can spill, shed droplets, and puts the employee's saliva onto the hands. Handwashing is required after eating or drinking.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-401.11(A)-(B); handwashing under 2-301.14(D)Report a problem with this question

54. 54. Which set of symptoms must a food employee report to the person in charge?

    • A.Headache, fever, cough, runny nose and fatigue
    • B.Vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, sore throat with fever, and an infected open or draining lesion containing pus that is not properly covered✓ Answer
    • C.Fever by itself, sneezing, watery eyes, dizziness and sore muscles
    • D.Vomiting, headache, muscle aches, sneezing and rash

    The Code lists exactly five reportable symptoms, and the employee must report them — with the date of onset — to the person in charge, not to the health department. Each one signals a condition that can be passed to consumers through food, mainly by the fecal-oral route. Fever on its own is not reportable (only sore throat combined with fever is), and persistent coughing, sneezing or a runny nose is handled by a separate rule that keeps the employee away from exposed food rather than by the reporting requirement.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.11(A)(1); discharges rule 2-401.12Report a problem with this question

55. 55. A food employee is diagnosed with an illness. Which diagnosis must be reported to the person in charge under the Food Code?

    • A.Hepatitis A✓ Answer
    • B.Listeriosis (Listeria monocytogenes)
    • C.Clostridium perfringens infection
    • D.Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning

    The reportable diagnoses are Norovirus, hepatitis A virus, Shigella spp., Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, typhoid fever (Salmonella Typhi) and nontyphoidal Salmonella — the 'Big 6' — because these are readily transmitted from an infected food worker to consumers through food, mostly by the fecal-oral route and at very low infectious doses. Note that Salmonella appears twice on the list (Typhi and nontyphoidal) and the two carry different exclusion and restriction rules. Listeria, Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium perfringens cause foodborne illness but are not on the employee reporting list.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.11(A)(2)Report a problem with this question

56. 56. A dishwasher tells the manager he vomited twice last night. What must the person in charge do, and when may he come back to work?

    • A.Restrict him to non-food duties; he may return as soon as he feels better
    • B.Let him work if he wears single-use gloves; no waiting period applies
    • C.Exclude him for a fixed 30 days regardless of symptoms
    • D.Exclude him from the establishment; he may return after at least 24 hours with no symptoms, or with written medical documentation that the symptom came from a noninfectious condition✓ Answer

    An employee who is symptomatic with vomiting or diarrhea must be excluded — kept out of the establishment entirely — not merely restricted, because vomiting sheds enormous numbers of infectious particles (Norovirus is the classic cause) that contaminate surfaces well beyond the employee's own work area. The exclusion may be removed once the employee has been asymptomatic for at least 24 hours, or on written medical documentation from a health practitioner that the symptom is from a noninfectious condition.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.12(A)(1); 2-201.13(A)(1)Report a problem with this question

57. 57. A cook who works in a nursing home kitchen is diagnosed with a Norovirus infection but has no symptoms at all. What must the person in charge do?

    • A.Nothing, because he has no symptoms
    • B.Restrict him from exposed food but let him keep working in the kitchen
    • C.Let him work normally with extra handwashing and gloves
    • D.Exclude him from the establishment, because it serves a highly susceptible population✓ Answer

    For an asymptomatic diagnosis of Norovirus, Shigella spp. or Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, the required action depends on who is served: exclude the employee if the establishment serves a highly susceptible population, restrict the employee if it does not. Nursing homes, hospitals, assisted living and day care centers serve highly susceptible populations — preschool-age children, older adults and immunocompromised people — who are far more likely to be hospitalized or die, and an infected worker keeps shedding the pathogen even without symptoms.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.12(D)Report a problem with this question

58. 58. A server at an ordinary restaurant is diagnosed with nontyphoidal Salmonella but has no symptoms. What does the Food Code require, and would the answer change at a hospital cafeteria?

    • A.Restrict at the restaurant but exclude at the hospital cafeteria
    • B.Restrict in both settings — this is the one asymptomatic Big 6 diagnosis that does not follow the highly-susceptible-population split✓ Answer
    • C.Exclude in both settings
    • D.No action in either setting unless symptoms appear

    An asymptomatic diagnosis of nontyphoidal Salmonella calls for restriction whether or not the establishment serves a highly susceptible population — it is the exception to the pattern set by Norovirus, Shigella and STEC, which are exclude-in-HSP and restrict-elsewhere. Restricted means the employee may remain in the establishment but may not work with exposed food, clean equipment, utensils or linens, or unwrapped single-service and single-use articles.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.12(G)Report a problem with this question

59. 59. A prep cook at a neighborhood pizzeria reports an acute sore throat with fever. What must the person in charge do?

    • A.Exclude her — sore throat with fever always requires exclusion
    • B.Take no action — sore throat is not covered by the employee health rules
    • C.Restrict her from exposed food, clean equipment, utensils and linens, and unwrapped single-service articles✓ Answer
    • D.Let her keep preparing food if she wears a face mask

    Acute onset of sore throat with fever calls for exclusion only where the establishment serves a highly susceptible population; everywhere else the employee is restricted. Streptococcal infection can be transmitted through food, but for a general population the hazard is controlled by keeping the employee away from exposed food and food-contact items rather than out of the building. Reinstatement requires written medical documentation — for example more than 24 hours of antibiotic therapy, a negative throat culture, or a health practitioner's clearance.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.12(H)(2)Report a problem with this question

60. 60. When must the person in charge notify the regulatory authority about a food employee's health?

    • A.When the employee is jaundiced, or is diagnosed with Norovirus, hepatitis A, Shigella spp., Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, typhoid fever, or nontyphoidal Salmonella✓ Answer
    • B.Every time an employee reports vomiting or diarrhea
    • C.Only when a customer complains of becoming ill
    • D.Whenever an employee misses a shift because of illness

    Notification to the regulatory authority is required in only two situations: a food employee who is jaundiced, or one diagnosed with an illness caused by one of the six listed pathogens. Those two triggers signal a confirmed high-transmission hazard that the health department may need to investigate for a wider outbreak. Symptoms alone are handled inside the operation — the person in charge must still exclude an employee who is vomiting or has diarrhea, but no call to the regulatory authority is required for symptoms without a diagnosis.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-201.11(B)(1)-(2)Report a problem with this question

61. 61. A restaurant manager is deciding where to buy food. Under the FDA Food Code, which choice meets the requirement that food be obtained from an APPROVED source?

    • A.A supplier that is inspected by, and complies with, the regulatory authority that has jurisdiction over it✓ Answer
    • B.An employee's home kitchen, as long as that employee holds a food handler card
    • C.Whichever supplier offers the lowest price and the fastest delivery
    • D.Any roadside farm stand, because whole produce is not a TCS food

    Food must come from sources that comply with law, which in practice means suppliers licensed and inspected by the regulatory authority with jurisdiction, because an operation cannot verify on its own how food was grown, processed, and transported. The Code separately and flatly prohibits using food prepared in a private home.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-201.11(A) and (B)Report a problem with this question

62. 62. A case of frozen shrimp arrives with large ice crystals on the product and frozen liquid stains in the bottom of the box. What should the receiver do FIRST?

    • A.Reject the shipment, because these are signs the product thawed and was refrozen✓ Answer
    • B.Accept it and note the condition on the invoice for the next delivery
    • C.Accept it and move it directly into the freezer
    • D.Accept it, but cook the shrimp within 24 hours

    Food labeled and shipped frozen must be received frozen and free of evidence of previous temperature abuse; large ice crystals and frozen fluid stains show the product spent time in the temperature danger zone, where pathogens could grow and produce toxins that later freezing and cooking cannot undo.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-202.11(E) and (F)Report a problem with this question

63. 63. Which condition requires a delivery of fresh fish to be REJECTED?

    • A.Fish packed in self-draining crushed ice
    • B.A mild ocean smell and a dry, intact shipping box
    • C.Dull, sunken eyes, soft flesh that does not spring back, and a strong ammonia odor✓ Answer
    • D.Bright red gills and firm flesh that springs back when pressed

    Sunken cloudy eyes, flesh that stays indented, and an ammonia or sour smell are signs of spoilage and of time-temperature abuse, so the fish is adulterated and must be refused; the other three descriptions are exactly what an acceptable seafood delivery looks like.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-101.11 (safe, unadulterated food) and 3-202.11(F)Report a problem with this question

64. 64. A case of canned green beans arrives. Which condition MUST cause a can to be rejected?

    • A.The can has a best-by date three months in the future
    • B.The label lists the ingredients and an allergen statement
    • C.The cases were delivered stacked on a clean pallet
    • D.The can is swollen and has a deep dent across its side seam✓ Answer

    Packages must be received intact and undamaged: a swollen can signals gas produced by microbial growth inside, and a dent on the side or end seam can break the hermetic seal and let contamination in, so the can must be rejected rather than opened or 'used first.'

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-202.15 (package integrity) and 3-101.11Report a problem with this question

65. 65. An operation serves the last oysters from a container of shellstock on June 10. What does the Food Code require the operation to do with the shellstock tag?

    • A.Discard the tag as soon as the container is empty
    • B.Keep the tag for 7 days after the container is emptied
    • C.Return the tag to the shellfish dealer with the empty container
    • D.Record June 10 on the tag and keep it for 90 calendar days✓ Answer

    Shellstock tags must stay attached until the container is empty, the date the last shellfish is sold or served is written on the tag, and tags are kept in order for 90 calendar days from that date, because that window lets investigators trace a shellfish-borne illness back to the harvest waters.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-203.12(B) and (C)Report a problem with this question

66. 66. In one cooler, in top-to-bottom order, how should these be stored: ground beef, salmon fillets, raw chicken, and pans of ready-to-eat potato salad?

    • A.Chicken, ground beef, salmon, potato salad
    • B.Potato salad, ground beef, salmon, chicken
    • C.Salmon, potato salad, chicken, ground beef
    • D.Potato salad, salmon, ground beef, chicken✓ Answer

    Shelves are ordered by minimum internal cooking temperature, with ready-to-eat food on top and the food needing the highest cooking temperature on the bottom, so that drips can never fall from a food requiring a hotter kill step onto one that is cooked less or eaten as is.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-302.11(A) (separation to prevent cross contamination), applied with the cooking temperatures of 3-401.11Report a problem with this question

67. 67. How must food be stored in a dry-storage room?

    • A.At least 6 inches (15 cm) above the floor, in a clean, dry location not exposed to splash or dust✓ Answer
    • B.At least 12 inches (30 cm) above the floor, on any available shelf
    • C.At least 2 inches (5 cm) above the floor and pushed tight against the wall
    • D.Directly on the floor, as long as the floor is mopped daily

    The Code sets 6 inches (15 cm) as the minimum clearance and requires a clean, dry spot free of splash and dust, because floor-level storage exposes food to mop splash, spills, and pests; keeping product off the wall as well allows cleaning and pest inspection behind the shelving.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-305.11(A)Report a problem with this question

68. 68. Which food storage location is PROHIBITED by the Food Code?

    • A.On shelving beneath a sewer line that is not shielded to intercept drips✓ Answer
    • B.In a walk-in cooler on a shelf above raw poultry
    • C.In a dedicated dry-storage room next to the kitchen
    • D.In a designated storage area of a clean basement with a sealed floor

    Food may not be stored under unshielded sewer lines, under leaking water lines or open stairwells, or in locker, toilet, dressing, garbage, and mechanical rooms, because condensation, drips, and airborne contamination from those areas fall directly onto the food and cannot be controlled by cleaning.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-305.12Report a problem with this question

69. 69. An operation rotates stock using the FIFO method. How should a new delivery be shelved?

    • A.Wherever there is space, since dates are checked at the time of use
    • B.Grouped by supplier, using each supplier's newest delivery first
    • C.In front of the existing stock, so the freshest product is served first
    • D.Behind the existing stock, so items with the earliest use-by dates are used first✓ Answer

    FIFO shelves new stock behind older stock so product is used in the order of its use-by or expiration dates; this keeps food from quietly aging out at the back of a shelf, and any item that is past its date must be discarded rather than used up later.

    Source: FIFO stock rotation applied with FDA Food Code 3-501.18 (disposition of food past its date)Report a problem with this question

70. 70. A cook pours degreaser from a bulk drum into an unlabeled spray bottle. What does the Food Code require?

    • A.The bottle must be labeled with the manufacturer's lot number and expiration date
    • B.No label is needed as long as the bottle is emptied the same day
    • C.A label is needed only if the bottle is stored in the same room as food
    • D.The spray bottle must be clearly and individually labeled with the common name of the chemical✓ Answer

    Working containers of poisonous or toxic materials taken from bulk supplies must be individually identified with the common name of the material, because unlabeled bottles get mistaken for water, oil, or cleaning solution and cause chemical poisoning; house-prepared food removed from its original package and stored in a working container must likewise be labeled with its common name.

    Source: FDA Food Code 7-102.11 (common name of working containers); 3-302.12 (food containers identified with common name)Report a problem with this question

71. 71. Which method of thawing frozen chicken breasts meets the Food Code?

    • A.Completely submerged under running water at 70°F (21°C) or below, with enough flow to float off loose particles✓ Answer
    • B.In a sink of standing warm water that is changed every hour
    • C.On a clean prep table at room temperature for no more than 4 hours
    • D.In a microwave, then refrigerated overnight and cooked the next day

    Only four methods are allowed: under refrigeration at 41°F (5°C) or less, completely submerged under running water at 70°F (21°C) or below with enough velocity to float off particles, as part of the cooking process, or in a microwave followed immediately by conventional cooking. Standing warm water and room-temperature counters hold the outside of the food in the danger zone while the center is still frozen.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.13(A)-(C)Report a problem with this question

72. 72. A cook has just cut raw chicken on a cutting board and now needs to slice lettuce for salads. Which action is acceptable?

    • A.Wipe the board with a dry towel and continue, since the lettuce will be washed anyway
    • B.Rinse the board with hot water and turn it over to use the other side
    • C.Move to a different, cleaned and sanitized board, or clean and sanitize this board before slicing the lettuce✓ Answer
    • D.Slice the lettuce on the far end of the same board, away from where the chicken was

    Raw animal food must be kept separate from ready-to-eat food in space or in time, and any food-contact surface used for raw meat must be both cleaned and sanitized before it touches ready-to-eat food; rinsing, wiping, or simply moving to another part of the same board leaves pathogens on the surface.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-302.11(A) (separation), 3-304.11 (food contact with equipment), 4-602.11 / 4-703.11 (cleaning and sanitizing food-contact surfaces)Report a problem with this question

73. 73. How should whole cantaloupes be handled before they are cut for a fruit tray?

    • A.Washed with soap in the handwashing sink
    • B.Wiped down with a cloth soaked in sanitizer solution
    • C.Cut first, and then the pieces rinsed to remove any soil
    • D.Washed thoroughly in running water in a designated food-prep sink before cutting✓ Answer

    Raw fruits and vegetables must be thoroughly washed to remove soil and other contaminants before being cut, combined, cooked, or served ready to eat, because a knife drags rind contamination straight into the flesh; produce is washed in a prep or produce sink, never in a handwashing sink, which is reserved for handwashing only.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-302.15(A) (washing fruits and vegetables); 5-205.11 (handwashing sink use limitation)Report a problem with this question

74. 74. A bar has been using a bucket of ice to chill bottled juice in a display. After the bottles are removed, may that ice be used in customers' drinks?

    • A.Yes, if the bottles were unopened and the ice is still frozen solid
    • B.Yes, if the ice is first rinsed with cool running water
    • C.No — ice used to cool the exterior of food or containers may never afterward be used as food✓ Answer
    • D.Yes, if the ice is transferred to a clean bin within 4 hours

    Once ice has served as a medium for cooling the exterior surfaces of food, packaged items, or equipment coils, it may not be used as food, because contamination from container exteriors and drip water transfers into the melting ice; ice made for consumption must be made from drinking water and handled with a scoop stored outside the bin.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-303.11 (ice used as exterior coolant, prohibited as ingredient)Report a problem with this question

75. 75. Which activity requires an operation to obtain a VARIANCE from the regulatory authority before it begins?

    • A.Serving raw oysters with a written consumer advisory
    • B.Using a blast chiller to cool a large batch of soup
    • C.Smoking food as a method of preservation rather than for flavor✓ Answer
    • D.Cooking hamburgers to order for customers

    A variance is written approval to depart from a Code requirement, and it must be obtained in advance for specialized processes such as smoking or curing for preservation, using additives to make a food non-TCS, reduced-oxygen packaging of TCS food, and molluscan shellfish life-support display tanks, because those processes control hazards in a non-standard way and normally require a HACCP plan. Cooking to order, a consumer advisory, and blast chilling are ordinary permitted practices.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-502.11 (variance requirement), referencing 8-103.10 and 8-103.11Report a problem with this question

76. 76. In a HACCP plan, what is a CRITICAL LIMIT?

    • A.The maximum number of days a ready-to-eat food may be held before it is discarded
    • B.The record an employee signs to document that a procedure was followed
    • C.The step in the process where loss of control could result in an unacceptable health risk
    • D.The maximum or minimum value — such as a temperature or a time — to which a hazard must be controlled at a critical control point✓ Answer

    A critical control point is the point or procedure where loss of control creates an unacceptable health risk, and the critical limit is the measurable boundary — the temperature, time, pH, or water activity — that must be met at that point; the limit is what makes the control point verifiable and triggers corrective action when it is missed.

    Source: FDA Food Code 1-201.10 definitions of "critical control point" and "critical limit"Report a problem with this question

77. 77. Between uses during a lunch rush, where should the spoon used to portion mashed potatoes from a hot-held pan be kept?

    • A.In a container of standing room-temperature water beside the line
    • B.In the food, with its handle extending above the top of the food and the container✓ Answer
    • C.Laid across the pan with the bowl of the spoon resting down in the food
    • D.In the cook's apron pocket, so it stays with the person using it

    In-use utensils left in the food must have the handle above the top of the food and the container so hands never touch the food-contact surface and the handle is never buried in the food; a container of water is acceptable only if the water is held at 135°F (57°C) or above, and running water is allowed for moist foods such as mashed potatoes or ice cream.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-304.12(A), (D) and (F)Report a problem with this question

78. 78. A salad bar is set up in the dining room. Which statement reflects what the Food Code requires?

    • A.Food on display must be protected by food guards, display cases, packaging, or other effective means, and the bar must be monitored by trained food employees✓ Answer
    • B.Guests may reuse a soiled plate on return trips as long as they use clean serving tongs
    • C.Food guards are optional as long as a manager is somewhere in the dining room
    • D.Nuts in the shell and whole, uncut fruit must also be kept behind a food guard

    Displayed food must be shielded from customer contamination by packaging, counter or salad-bar food guards, or display cases, and self-service operations must have suitable utensils or dispensing methods and be monitored by trained employees; the only display exceptions are nuts in the shell and whole raw fruits and vegetables the consumer will hull, peel, or wash, and guests must take a clean plate on every return trip.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-306.11 (food display) and 3-306.13(B), (C) (consumer self-service operations)Report a problem with this question

79. 79. A table sends back an untouched basket of dinner rolls, an unopened package of crackers, and a bottle of steak sauce with a closed narrow neck. What may be re-served to another customer?

    • A.The unopened package of crackers and the closed bottle of steak sauce✓ Answer
    • B.All three items, because none of them were eaten
    • C.Only the rolls, because they can be reheated before being served again
    • D.Nothing, because any food that leaves the kitchen must be discarded

    Once food has been served and is in a consumer's possession, unused or returned food may not be offered to anyone else, because it may have been touched, coughed on, or handled; the only exceptions are non-TCS food dispensed from a protected container that stays closed between uses and food still in an unopened, sound original package.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-306.14(A) and (B)Report a problem with this question

80. 80. An operation is catering an event off site. Which practice BEST protects the food during transport and service?

    • A.Use clean, insulated, approved containers that hold food at 135°F (57°C) or above or 41°F (5°C) or below, label them with use-by dates and handling instructions, and check internal temperatures on arrival✓ Answer
    • B.Pack hot and cold foods together in one insulated carrier so the temperatures balance out
    • C.Transport everything at room temperature and heat or chill it after arriving at the site
    • D.Rely on a short drive, so temperatures do not need to be checked at the event

    Off-site food stays under the same time-temperature and protection rules as food in the kitchen, so it must travel in insulated, cleanable containers that keep hot food at 135°F (57°C) or above and cold food at 41°F (5°C) or less, with raw and ready-to-eat items separated and labeled; temperatures are verified on arrival and food outside those limits is discarded, since transport time is unmonitored danger-zone exposure.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-501.16(A) (holding temperatures) with 3-305.11 (food protection) and 3-302.11 (separation) applied to transportReport a problem with this question

81. 81. A cook sprays quaternary ammonium sanitizer onto a cutting board that is still smeared with raw meat juice and food particles, waits a moment, and returns it to service. Why has the board NOT been sanitized?

    • A.Sanitizer is only required at the end of the shift, so the board was treated too early.
    • B.Sanitizing only works on a surface that has already been cleaned — food soil absorbs and inactivates the sanitizer before it can reach pathogens.✓ Answer
    • C.The board should have been rinsed with potable water after the sanitizer was applied.
    • D.Quaternary ammonium may not be used on cutting boards; only chlorine is approved for them.

    The Food Code defines sanitization as applying heat or chemicals to CLEANED food-contact surfaces to yield at least a 99.999% (5-log) reduction of representative disease microorganisms. Organic soil chemically ties up the sanitizer and physically shields microorganisms from it, which is why cleaning must always come before sanitizing.

    Source: FDA Food Code 1-201.10 (definition of "Sanitization"); 4-601.11(A)Report a problem with this question

82. 82. After scraping and pre-soaking, what is the correct sequence for manually washing equipment in a three-compartment sink?

    • A.Rinse, wash, sanitize, then dry with a clean cloth
    • B.Wash, rinse, sanitize, then air-dry✓ Answer
    • C.Wash, rinse, air-dry, then sanitize
    • D.Wash, sanitize, rinse, then dry with a clean cloth

    A distinct water rinse between washing and sanitizing removes detergent residue that would otherwise inactivate the sanitizer, and items must be air-dried or drained before they touch food. Wiping with a towel defeats the whole process because it can put lint, soil and hand contamination back onto a surface that was just sanitized.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-603.16 (rinsing procedures); 4-901.11 (air-drying required, cloth drying prohibited)Report a problem with this question

83. 83. An operation sanitizes utensils in the third compartment of its sink by immersing them in hot water. What is the minimum time and temperature required?

    • A.At least 15 seconds in water of at least 145°F (63°C)
    • B.At least 30 seconds in water of at least 171°F (77°C)✓ Answer
    • C.At least 10 seconds in water of at least 180°F (82°C)
    • D.At least 7 seconds in water of at least 194°F (90°C)

    Hot-water immersion sanitizing destroys pathogens by heat alone, so the Code fixes both a floor temperature and a full 30-second dwell time to deliver enough lethal heat to the utensil. 171°F is specifically the manual-immersion figure and should not be confused with dish machine wash or final-rinse temperatures.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-703.11(A); 4-501.111(A)Report a problem with this question

84. 84. The only water available at the sanitizing compartment is 55°F. Which chlorine sanitizing solution may be used at that water temperature?

    • A.100 mg/L (ppm) chlorine✓ Answer
    • B.25 mg/L (ppm) chlorine
    • C.Chlorine may not be used below 75°F at any concentration
    • D.50 mg/L (ppm) chlorine

    The Food Code chlorine table works inversely: the colder the water, the stronger the solution must be to work. A 25–49 mg/L solution requires water of at least 120°F and 50–99 mg/L requires at least 100°F (or 75°F at pH 8 or less), while a 100 mg/L solution is permitted down to 55°F.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-501.114(A)Report a problem with this question

85. 85. A kitchen mixes its quaternary ammonium sanitizer exactly as the label directs, but test strips repeatedly read below the required concentration. The building's water hardness measures about 900 mg/L. What is the most likely explanation?

    • A.Quat concentration cannot be measured with a test strip, so the readings mean nothing.
    • B.Quats require a solution pH of 5.0 or less, and the water pH is too high.
    • C.Quats break down in any water warmer than 75°F.
    • D.Quats may only be used in water with a hardness of 500 mg/L or less; minerals in hard water bind the sanitizer and lower its available concentration.✓ Answer

    The Code permits quats only in water with a hardness of 500 mg/L or less, at 75°F or above, and at the concentration stated on the EPA-registered label. Calcium and magnesium in harder water bind the quat molecules so the working solution tests weak no matter how carefully it is measured; the fix is softened water or a different sanitizer.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-501.114(C)Report a problem with this question

86. 86. Which combination correctly describes an iodine sanitizing solution used on food-contact surfaces?

    • A.Concentration per the manufacturer's label, water at least 75°F, hardness 500 mg/L or less
    • B.100 mg/L, water at least 55°F, any pH
    • C.12.5–25 mg/L, water at least 68°F, pH 5.0 or less✓ Answer
    • D.50–99 mg/L, water at least 75°F, pH 8.0 or less

    Iodine (iodophor) sanitizers stay active only in a narrow acidic range and above a modest minimum temperature; water that is too alkaline or too hot drives the iodine out of solution so it can no longer kill pathogens. The other option sets describe chlorine and quaternary ammonium, not iodine.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-501.114(B)Report a problem with this question

87. 87. An operation switched its wiping-cloth buckets from chlorine to a quaternary ammonium sanitizer, but staff still check the strength with the chlorine test strips left over from before. What is wrong with this?

    • A.Only chlorine concentration has to be checked; quat solutions do not need testing.
    • B.Test strips are chemistry-specific: chlorine strips cannot measure a quat solution, so the operation has no valid measurement of concentration.✓ Answer
    • C.Nothing — test strips read total sanitizer strength regardless of the chemical used.
    • D.Nothing, as long as the solution is mixed according to the label directions.

    The Code requires that sanitizer concentration be accurately determined using a test kit or device appropriate to that specific sanitizer, because a working solution weakens with soil load, dilution and time. A strip designed for chlorine has no valid reaction to a quat solution, and concentration may never be judged by smell or appearance.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-501.116; 4-302.14Report a problem with this question

88. 88. A quaternary ammonium solution is sprayed onto a cleaned prep table. How long must the surface stay wet with the sanitizer before it is wiped or put back in use?

    • A.At least 10 seconds
    • B.At least 30 seconds✓ Answer
    • C.At least 7 seconds
    • D.There is no minimum — the surface may be wiped dry immediately

    Chemical sanitizers need measurable wet contact time to penetrate and kill pathogens, so the Code sets at least 30 seconds for chemical sanitizing solutions other than the specific chlorine cases, which have their own shorter, condition-dependent times. Wiping the table dry right away cuts the contact time short and leaves surviving organisms.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-703.11(C)Report a problem with this question

89. 89. A deli slicer is used all day at room temperature to slice TCS (time/temperature control for safety) meats and is never taken out of service. How often must its food-contact surfaces be cleaned and sanitized?

    • A.Only at the end of the shift, before it is stored
    • B.At least every 8 hours
    • C.At least every 2 hours
    • D.At least every 4 hours✓ Answer

    Bacteria left on a food-contact surface multiply steadily at room temperature, so the Code caps the interval for equipment in continuous use with TCS food at 4 hours. Longer intervals are permitted only when the equipment is kept in a refrigerated room, on a documented schedule tied to the ambient temperature.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-602.11(C) and (D)Report a problem with this question

90. 90. A guest vomits on the dining room floor next to a self-service beverage station. What must the operation do?

    • A.Close the dining room and leave the spill in place until an outside contractor can be scheduled.
    • B.Spread an absorbent such as sawdust over the spill and sweep it up after service ends.
    • C.Mop the area with hot detergent water only, since sanitizer is not needed on floors.
    • D.Follow the operation's written procedure for vomiting and diarrheal events: keep people away from the area, discard exposed food and single-service items, clean and then sanitize the affected surfaces, and protect the employee doing the cleanup.✓ Answer

    Vomit and feces can carry enormous numbers of highly infectious Norovirus particles that spread as aerosols and survive on surfaces, so the Code requires a written cleanup procedure covering containment, disposal of contaminated food and items, cleaning followed by sanitizing, and protection of the person cleaning. Loose materials such as sawdust are also prohibited on floors because they cannot be cleaned effectively.

    Source: FDA Food Code 2-501.11; 6-501.12Report a problem with this question

91. 91. Between uses, how must wet cloths used to wipe down prep counters and equipment be held?

    • A.In a bucket of warm detergent water that is changed at the end of the shift
    • B.Rinsed in the handwashing sink and hung on the faucet to dry
    • C.Wrung out and carried in the food handler's apron pocket
    • D.Fully immersed in a chemical sanitizer solution at the required concentration, in a container kept off the floor✓ Answer

    A damp cloth left lying out is warm, wet and full of food residue — ideal for bacterial growth — and it then spreads that soil from surface to surface. Holding it submerged in sanitizer at the concentration required by 4-501.114 keeps the cloth itself from becoming the contaminant; the solution must be free of visible soil, the container stored off the floor, and the cloths laundered daily.

    Source: FDA Food Code 3-304.14(B); 4-802.11; 5-205.11 (handwashing sink use restriction)Report a problem with this question

92. 92. Which practice for storing cleaned and sanitized tableware and utensils meets the Food Code?

    • A.Polish them dry with a towel and leave them uncovered on the prep counter
    • B.Stack the glasses while still wet so they can finish drying on the shelf
    • C.Keep spare utensils in the janitorial closet whenever shelf space runs short
    • D.Store them at least 6 inches above the floor, covered or inverted, with flatware presented so that only the handles are touched✓ Answer

    Clean items have to be protected from splash, dust and hand contact until they are used: the 6-inch clearance keeps them above floor-level splash and lets staff clean underneath, inverting or covering blocks airborne soil, and handling flatware and glassware by handles and bases keeps fingers off food-contact surfaces. Storage in janitorial, garbage, toilet or locker areas is expressly prohibited.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-903.11(A); 4-903.12; 4-904.11Report a problem with this question

93. 93. How does a food handler verify that a high-temperature dish machine is actually sanitizing?

    • A.By confirming that the wash tank is at least 110°F
    • B.By confirming that the utensil surface reaches at least 160°F, using an irreversible registering temperature indicator run through the machine✓ Answer
    • C.By checking that the plates are too hot to handle when the rack comes out
    • D.By dipping a chlorine test strip into the final rinse water

    A high-temperature machine sanitizes with heat, so what counts is the temperature actually delivered to the dish surface, not just the gauge reading. An irreversible registering (maximum-registering) indicator or heat-sensitive tape records the peak surface temperature and is the accepted proof, because gauges can read correctly while a clogged rinse arm or overloaded rack still leaves surfaces under-heated.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-703.11(B); 4-302.13Report a problem with this question

94. 94. Plates are coming out of the dish machine with food residue still baked onto them, even though the machine's temperature gauges read normal. What should be checked first?

    • A.Whether the final rinse temperature is above 165°F
    • B.Whether the plates were scraped before loading, since pre-scraping is optional anyway
    • C.Whether racks are overloaded and whether the spray arms, nozzles and screens are blocked by debris or mineral scale, so wash water cannot reach every surface✓ Answer
    • D.Whether the operation is using the correct sanitizer test strips

    A dish machine cleans by physically spraying detergent solution against every surface, so overloading, stacking, or clogged nozzles create shadowed spots that never get washed no matter how hot the water is. The machine itself must also be cleaned of debris and mineral scale at least daily, and items must be scraped or pre-flushed before loading — pre-scraping is required, not optional.

    Source: FDA Food Code 4-501.14 (warewashing equipment cleaning frequency); 4-501.112 (wash solution temperature)Report a problem with this question

95. 95. Measured 30 inches above the floor, what is the minimum light intensity required in a walk-in refrigerator and in a dry food storage room?

    • A.10 foot-candles (108 lux)✓ Answer
    • B.50 foot-candles (540 lux)
    • C.20 foot-candles (215 lux)
    • D.100 foot-candles (1,076 lux)

    The Code sets light levels by how demanding the task is: 10 foot-candles in walk-ins, dry storage and areas during cleaning; 20 at consumer self-service displays, inside reach-in units and in handwashing, warewashing, utensil-storage and toilet areas; and 50 where an employee works with knives, slicers, grinders or saws, because there poor lighting becomes a personal-injury hazard.

    Source: FDA Food Code 6-303.11Report a problem with this question

96. 96. A pot-filler faucet is being installed above a food preparation sink. What air gap is required between the water supply outlet and the flood rim of the sink?

    • A.No air gap is needed as long as the faucet has a screen on it
    • B.At least 1/2 inch, measured from the bottom of the faucet
    • C.At least twice the diameter of the water supply inlet, and never less than 1 inch✓ Answer
    • D.Exactly the same as the diameter of the water supply inlet

    An air gap is a physical break that water cannot bridge, which makes it the only fully reliable protection against backflow and backsiphonage. Sizing it at twice the inlet diameter, with a 1-inch floor, ensures that negative pressure in the supply line cannot pull contaminated water back into the drinking-water system; where an air gap is not possible, an approved backflow prevention device is required at each point of use.

    Source: FDA Food Code 5-202.13; 5-203.14Report a problem with this question

97. 97. A food handler finds droppings that look like coffee grounds behind the dry-storage shelving, along with gnaw marks on the flour sacks. What should the manager do FIRST?

    • A.Contact the operation's licensed pest control operator, and in the meantime discard the contaminated food and eliminate the harborage✓ Answer
    • B.Personally apply a household rodenticide along the wall and re-check in a week
    • C.Scatter loose rodent bait pellets behind the shelving overnight
    • D.Wait for more evidence before reporting it, since droppings alone are not proof

    The Code requires the premises to be kept free of insects, rodents and other pests and places control in the hands of a licensed pest control operator: management's job is to deny pests access, food, water and harborage, while pesticide application is a licensed function and restricted-use pesticides may be applied only by a certified applicator. Any rodent bait used must be in a covered, tamper-resistant bait station, never scattered loose where it can contaminate food.

    Source: FDA Food Code 6-501.111; 7-202.12(C); 7-206.12Report a problem with this question

98. 98. A back door is propped open during the afternoon for ventilation. Under the Food Code, how may that opening be protected against insects?

    • A.By mounting an insect electrocuting device on the ceiling directly over the nearest prep table
    • B.By aiming a floor fan out through the doorway during business hours
    • C.With screens of at least 16 mesh to 1 inch, or a properly designed and installed air curtain✓ Answer
    • D.By hanging a sticky fly strip just inside the doorway

    Denying pests access is the first prong of pest management, and the Code specifies the actual barrier: screening of 16 mesh to 1 inch (or an approved air curtain) is fine enough to exclude flying insects while still allowing airflow. Insect electrocuting devices are never permitted over a food preparation area because they can impel insect parts onto food and clean equipment.

    Source: FDA Food Code 6-202.15; 6-202.13Report a problem with this question

99. 99. A spray bottle filled from a bulk drum of degreaser is stored on the shelf directly above the prep table. What is wrong?

    • A.Only that a degreaser may be applied solely by a certified applicator.
    • B.Nothing, because the degreaser is used in that area every day.
    • C.Only that the spray bottle must carry the manufacturer's original label; its location is acceptable.
    • D.Two things: the working container must be clearly labeled with the common name of the chemical, and poisonous or toxic materials may not be stored above food, equipment, utensils, linens or single-service articles.✓ Answer

    An unlabeled working container invites someone to mistake a chemical for water or a food ingredient, and a container stored overhead can leak or be knocked down onto food and food-contact surfaces. The Code therefore requires working containers to be individually identified with the common name of the material and toxic materials to be separated by spacing or partitioning and stored where they are not above these items; a container that held a toxic material may also never be reused for food.

    Source: FDA Food Code 7-102.11; 7-201.11; 7-203.11Report a problem with this question

100. 100. Which practice for the outdoor dumpster and refuse area complies with the Food Code?

     • A.Setting the container directly on bare soil so spills soak into the ground
     • B.Keeping lids, doors and covers tight-fitting and closed, keeping drain plugs in place, and keeping the surface under and around the unit clean and free of unnecessary items✓ Answer
     • C.Removing the drain plugs so rainwater runs out of the container
     • D.Leaving the lids open so staff can toss bags in quickly and so odors can air out

     Uncovered garbage and leaking waste water are the classic sources of food, water and harborage that draw flies, cockroaches and rodents to an operation. The Code therefore requires tight-fitting covers kept closed, drain plugs in place, and a surrounding surface built and maintained so that the area under and around the unit can actually be cleaned.

     Source: FDA Food Code 5-501.113(B); 5-501.115; 5-501.15Report a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the FDA Food Code. Not affiliated with ServSafe®. Check your local health department's requirements before your exam. FDA Food Code →