20 Anatomy & Medical Terminology Practice Questions & Answers

Every Anatomy & Medical Terminology practice question from the Medical Assistant Practice Test, with the correct answer and a short explanation.

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1. According to the combining-vowel rule of medical word building, which term below is constructed correctly?
- A.gastroitis
- B.gastritis✓ Answer
- C.arthroalgia
- D.cardimegaly
The combining vowel (usually 'o') is dropped when the suffix begins with a vowel and kept when the suffix begins with a consonant. Because -itis begins with a vowel, gastr/o + -itis becomes gastritis. For the same rule, cardi/o + -megaly keeps the vowel (cardiomegaly) and arthr/o + -algia drops it (arthralgia), so the other three spellings are malformed.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.2.a (word parts: roots/combining forms, prefixes, suffixes); AMT RMA I.B.1Report a problem with this question
2. A surgeon brings a segment of colon to the abdominal wall and creates a permanent artificial opening for the elimination of stool. Which suffix names this procedure?
- A.-ectomy
- B.-otomy
- C.-plasty
- D.-ostomy✓ Answer
In the surgical suffix family, -ostomy specifically means the surgical creation of an artificial opening (stoma) to the body surface, as in colostomy. -otomy means only cutting into a structure, -ectomy means excision or removal of a structure, and -plasty means surgical repair or reshaping, so none of them describes making a permanent opening.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.2.c (surgical suffixes); AMT RMA I.B.2Report a problem with this question
3. A physician documents surgical suturing of a lacerated tendon. Which suffix from the -rrh- family belongs in the term?
- A.-rrhea
- B.-rrhaphy✓ Answer
- C.-rrhexis
- D.-rrhagia
Within the frequently confused -rrh- cluster, -rrhaphy is the only surgical suffix and means suturing, as in tenorrhaphy or herniorrhaphy. -rrhagia means bursting forth or excessive bleeding, -rrhea means flow or discharge, and -rrhexis means rupture, so all three describe conditions rather than the repair itself.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.2.c (surgical suffixes); AMT RMA I.B.2Report a problem with this question
4. A chest x-ray image is placed in the patient's record. Which suffix indicates the finished record or picture that is produced, rather than the procedure or the machine?
- A.-graph
- B.-scopy
- C.-graphy
- D.-gram✓ Answer
-gram names the actual record or image produced (radiogram, electrocardiogram, mammogram). -graphy names the process of recording, -graph names the instrument or device that does the recording, and -scopy means visual examination with a scope, which is why radiography, radiograph and radiogram are a classic exam trap.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.2.b (diagnostic suffixes); AMT RMA I.B.2Report a problem with this question
5. The combining form myel/o appears in both myelogram and myelosuppression. What does myel/o mean?
- A.Muscle tissue
- B.Bone marrow or spinal cord, depending on context✓ Answer
- C.Heart muscle
- D.The myelin sheath of a neuron only
Myel/o carries two accepted meanings — bone marrow and spinal cord — and the surrounding context decides which applies: a myelogram images the spinal canal, while myelosuppression is decreased bone marrow activity. My/o means muscle and cardi/o means heart, so those roots would be used instead for muscle or cardiac terms.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.2.a (combining forms); AMT RMA I.B.1Report a problem with this question
6. Which singular-to-plural pair follows the standard rules for forming plurals of medical terms?
- A.ovum → ovums
- B.bronchus → bronchi✓ Answer
- C.diagnosis → diagnosises
- D.phalanx → phalanxes
Medical plurals follow their Latin and Greek endings: -us becomes -i, so bronchus becomes bronchi. By the same rules -um becomes -a (ovum → ova), -is becomes -es (diagnosis → diagnoses), and -nx becomes -nges (phalanx → phalanges), so the other three options add English endings incorrectly.
Source: AMT RMA Certification Examination Competencies I.B.4 (spelling and singular/plural forms of medical terms)Report a problem with this question
7. Which medication dose is written correctly according to the Joint Commission Official "Do Not Use" List and ISMP safe-writing rules?
- A.5.0 U
- B.1.0 mg
- C..5 mg
- D.0.5 mg✓ Answer
A leading zero must always be written before a decimal point so the dose is not misread as a tenfold overdose if the point is missed, and a trailing zero must never be used after a whole number for the same reason. That makes 0.5 mg correct, while .5 mg lacks the leading zero, 1.0 mg carries a trailing zero, and 5.0 U also abbreviates "unit" as U, which the list prohibits.
Source: The Joint Commission Official "Do Not Use" List (trailing zero / lack of leading zero; U for unit); ISMP List of Error-Prone AbbreviationsReport a problem with this question
8. A provider's order reads "metformin 500 mg PO ac." When should the medical assistant instruct the patient to take the dose?
- A.At bedtime
- B.Before meals✓ Answer
- C.Only as needed
- D.After meals
The charting abbreviation ac comes from ante cibum, meaning before meals, and PO means by mouth. After meals is pc (post cibum), at bedtime is hs (hora somni), and as needed is PRN (pro re nata), so misreading ac would change the timing of the dose relative to food intake.
Source: AMT RMA Certification Examination Competencies I.B.3 (medical abbreviations and symbols); standard prescription abbreviationsReport a problem with this question
9. The distal portion of the small intestine, which joins the cecum at the ileocecal valve, is called the:
- A.Ileum✓ Answer
- B.Cecum
- C.Duodenum
- D.Ilium
Ileum, spelled with an e, is the third and final segment of the small intestine and empties into the cecum; ilium, spelled with an i, is the broad superior bone of the pelvis. The duodenum is the first small-intestinal segment and the cecum is the beginning of the large intestine, so neither fits the description.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(6) (digestive system structure); commonly confused terms ileum vs. iliumReport a problem with this question
10. Three weeks after a CVA, a patient has marked muscle weakness of the right arm and leg but can still move them. Which term documents this most accurately?
- A.Right hemiparesis✓ Answer
- B.Right hemiplegia
- C.Quadriplegia
- D.Paraplegia
The suffix -paresis means partial weakness while -plegia means complete paralysis, and the prefix hemi- means one side of the body, so weakness with retained movement on one side is hemiparesis. Paraplegia is paralysis of both lower extremities and quadriplegia is paralysis of all four extremities, neither of which matches a one-sided deficit.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.2.b (pathologic suffixes: -paresis, -plegia); I.C.6.h(3) nervous systemReport a problem with this question
11. Blood leaving the left atrium passes through which valve on its way into the left ventricle?
- A.Pulmonary semilunar valve
- B.Mitral (bicuspid) valve✓ Answer
- C.Tricuspid valve
- D.Aortic semilunar valve
Each atrioventricular valve sits between the atrium and ventricle on its own side: the mitral (bicuspid) valve on the left and the tricuspid valve on the right. The pulmonary semilunar valve guards the exit from the right ventricle and the aortic semilunar valve the exit from the left ventricle, so both are outflow valves rather than the left atrioventricular valve.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(4) (cardiovascular system: chambers, valves, blood flow)Report a problem with this question
12. In the cardiac conduction system, the impulse generated by the SA node travels next to which structure?
- A.Left bundle branch
- B.Bundle of His
- C.AV node✓ Answer
- D.Purkinje fibers
The conduction sequence is SA node → AV node → bundle of His → right and left bundle branches → Purkinje fibers. The AV node comes second because it briefly delays the impulse, allowing the atria to finish contracting and fill the ventricles before ventricular depolarization begins.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(4) (cardiac conduction system)Report a problem with this question
13. Which statement about the pulmonary circulation is accurate?
- A.The pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs✓ Answer
- B.All arteries in the body carry oxygenated blood
- C.The pulmonary veins carry deoxygenated blood into the right atrium
- D.The pulmonary artery delivers oxygenated blood to the systemic circulation
Arteries are defined by carrying blood away from the heart, not by oxygen content, so the pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange. The pulmonary veins are the matching exception in reverse, returning oxygenated blood to the left atrium.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(4) (cardiovascular system: pulmonary vs. systemic circulation)Report a problem with this question
14. During inspiration, air that has just passed through the larynx enters which structure next?
- A.Oropharynx
- B.Bronchioles
- C.Trachea✓ Answer
- D.Alveoli
The air pathway runs nose/nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea → primary bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli, so the trachea immediately follows the larynx. The oropharynx lies above the larynx, and the bronchioles and alveoli are reached only after the trachea branches into the bronchi.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(5) (respiratory system structure and airflow)Report a problem with this question
15. Which organ is an accessory organ of digestion rather than part of the alimentary canal?
- A.Duodenum
- B.Esophagus
- C.Pancreas✓ Answer
- D.Sigmoid colon
The alimentary canal is the continuous tube food actually travels through — mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus. The pancreas, like the liver, gallbladder and salivary glands, is an accessory organ: it delivers enzymes into the duodenum through a duct, but food never passes through it.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(6) (digestive system: alimentary canal and accessory organs)Report a problem with this question
16. In the nephron, filtration of blood plasma takes place at which structure?
- A.Glomerulus within Bowman's capsule✓ Answer
- B.Loop of Henle
- C.Distal convoluted tubule
- D.Collecting duct
Urine formation begins with filtration, which occurs only where the high-pressure capillary tuft of the glomerulus sits inside Bowman's capsule and forces water and small solutes out of the blood. The loop of Henle concentrates the filtrate, the distal convoluted tubule is a main site of secretion, and the collecting duct carries out final water reabsorption under ADH.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(7) (urinary system: nephron and urine formation)Report a problem with this question
17. With the patient in anatomical position, the wrist is correctly described as being ____ to the elbow.
- A.Distal✓ Answer
- B.Superficial
- C.Medial
- D.Proximal
Proximal and distal are used for the extremities and are measured from the point of attachment to the trunk, so a structure farther from that attachment is distal — the wrist is distal to the elbow, and the elbow is proximal to the wrist. Medial and lateral describe nearness to the midline and superficial describes nearness to the body surface, so neither applies to position along a limb.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.d–f (anatomical position, directional terms, planes)Report a problem with this question
18. A patient reports rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, suggesting appendicitis. In which abdominopelvic quadrant is this finding documented?
- A.Right upper quadrant (RUQ)
- B.Left upper quadrant (LUQ)
- C.Left lower quadrant (LLQ)
- D.Right lower quadrant (RLQ)✓ Answer
The appendix hangs from the cecum in the right lower quadrant, and McBurney's point lies between the umbilicus and the right anterior superior iliac spine, so appendiceal tenderness is charted as RLQ. Quadrants are always named from the patient's own right and left, not the examiner's; the liver and gallbladder occupy the RUQ and the stomach and spleen the LUQ.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.f (abdominopelvic quadrants and regions)Report a problem with this question
19. Which statement correctly describes hormonal regulation of blood calcium?
- A.Calcitonin and PTH both raise blood calcium
- B.Parathyroid hormone (PTH) lowers blood calcium
- C.Calcitonin lowers blood calcium while PTH raises it✓ Answer
- D.Thyroxine (T4) is the main regulator of blood calcium
Calcium is controlled by a pair of opposing hormones in a negative-feedback loop: calcitonin from the thyroid drives calcium into bone and lowers the serum level, while parathyroid hormone from the parathyroid glands mobilizes calcium from bone and increases intestinal and renal reabsorption, raising it. Thyroxine regulates metabolic rate, not calcium.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.g(9) (endocrine glands and principal hormones)Report a problem with this question
20. A patient has a full-thickness (third-degree) burn whose central area is not painful. What best explains the absence of pain?
- A.Only the epidermis is involved, and it contains no nerves
- B.The sensory nerve endings in the dermis have been destroyed✓ Answer
- C.The burn has not yet reached the dermis, so pain will begin later
- D.Blisters over the area block sensation from reaching the skin surface
A full-thickness burn destroys the entire epidermis and dermis, and because the sensory receptors and nerve endings lie in the dermis, that tissue can no longer transmit pain from the burned area. Superficial (first-degree) burns involve only the avascular epidermis and are red and painful, and partial-thickness (second-degree) burns blister and are typically the most painful because dermal nerve endings are exposed but still intact.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.C.6.h(1) (integumentary system: abnormal structure and function); standard burn-depth classificationReport a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the AAMA (CMA) and AMT (RMA) certification content outlines and standard medical-assisting curriculum. Not affiliated with or endorsed by AAMA, AMT, or any certifying body. Study the official candidate handbook and confirm current exam content before testing. About the CMA exam →

1. According to the combining-vowel rule of medical word building, which term below is constructed correctly?

2. A surgeon brings a segment of colon to the abdominal wall and creates a permanent artificial opening for the elimination of stool. Which suffix names this procedure?

3. A physician documents surgical suturing of a lacerated tendon. Which suffix from the -rrh- family belongs in the term?

4. A chest x-ray image is placed in the patient's record. Which suffix indicates the finished record or picture that is produced, rather than the procedure or the machine?

5. The combining form myel/o appears in both myelogram and myelosuppression. What does myel/o mean?

6. Which singular-to-plural pair follows the standard rules for forming plurals of medical terms?

7. Which medication dose is written correctly according to the Joint Commission Official "Do Not Use" List and ISMP safe-writing rules?

8. A provider's order reads "metformin 500 mg PO ac." When should the medical assistant instruct the patient to take the dose?

9. The distal portion of the small intestine, which joins the cecum at the ileocecal valve, is called the:

10. Three weeks after a CVA, a patient has marked muscle weakness of the right arm and leg but can still move them. Which term documents this most accurately?

11. Blood leaving the left atrium passes through which valve on its way into the left ventricle?

12. In the cardiac conduction system, the impulse generated by the SA node travels next to which structure?

13. Which statement about the pulmonary circulation is accurate?

14. During inspiration, air that has just passed through the larynx enters which structure next?

15. Which organ is an accessory organ of digestion rather than part of the alimentary canal?

16. In the nephron, filtration of blood plasma takes place at which structure?

17. With the patient in anatomical position, the wrist is correctly described as being ____ to the elbow.

18. A patient reports rebound tenderness at McBurney's point, suggesting appendicitis. In which abdominopelvic quadrant is this finding documented?

19. Which statement correctly describes hormonal regulation of blood calcium?

20. A patient has a full-thickness (third-degree) burn whose central area is not painful. What best explains the absence of pain?