20 Pharmacology & Patient Care Practice Questions & Answers

Every Pharmacology & Patient Care practice question from the Medical Assistant Practice Test, with the correct answer and a short explanation.

Start practice test →

1. A provider orders an influenza vaccine, but the patient tells the medical assistant she does not want it. What is the MOST appropriate action?
- A.Tell the patient she cannot be seen again until she accepts the vaccine
- B.Honor the refusal, document it in the record, and notify the provider✓ Answer
- C.Ask another staff member to persuade the patient to accept it
- D.Administer the vaccine because the provider has already ordered it
The rights of medication administration include the patient's right to refuse. A competent adult may decline any treatment, and administering it over that refusal would constitute battery. The medical assistant's obligation is to document the refusal objectively and inform the provider, who decides how to proceed clinically.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.a (Rights of medication administration, including right to refuse)Report a problem with this question
2. A provider orders albuterol for a patient having an acute asthma attack. To which drug class does albuterol belong, and how does it relieve the attack?
- A.An antihistamine that blocks H1 receptors
- B.A corticosteroid that reduces airway inflammation over several days
- C.A nonselective beta blocker that slows the heart rate
- D.A beta-2 agonist bronchodilator that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle✓ Answer
The suffix -terol identifies a beta-2 adrenergic agonist. Stimulating beta-2 receptors in the airways relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, producing rapid bronchodilation, which is why albuterol is a rescue drug. Inhaled corticosteroids are controllers and take days to work, so when both are ordered the bronchodilator is given first.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.1.a-b (Drug classifications and actions/indications)Report a problem with this question
3. How many times, and at what points, should a medical assistant read the label of a medication before giving it to a patient?
- A.Only when the medication is a controlled substance
- B.Three times: when taking it from storage, when preparing the dose, and when returning or discarding the container✓ Answer
- C.Twice: when removing it from storage and again when charting
- D.Once, immediately before administering it
The three label checks are a standard error-prevention step that catches look-alike/sound-alike name mix-ups, wrong strengths, and expired product at three independent moments. A single check at the bedside gives no opportunity to catch an error already made during selection or preparation.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.a (Medication administration safety checks)Report a problem with this question
4. A medical assistant realizes she has just administered 100 mg of a medication when the order was for 50 mg. What should she do FIRST?
- A.Complete an incident report and file it in the patient's medical record
- B.Wait to see whether the patient develops any symptoms
- C.Stay with the patient, assess for adverse effects, and notify the provider immediately✓ Answer
- D.Chart the error in the patient's medical record before doing anything else
Patient safety always precedes paperwork: the medical assistant stays with the patient, assesses, and notifies the provider so treatment can begin. An incident/variance report is completed afterward as an internal risk-management document and is never placed in or referenced in the medical record; only the drug and dose actually given are charted factually.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.e.2 (Medication error reporting)Report a problem with this question
5. The provider orders 375 mg of an oral suspension. The bottle is labeled 250 mg per 5 mL. How many milliliters should the medical assistant give?
- A.15 mL
- B.7.5 mL✓ Answer
- C.1.5 mL
- D.0.75 mL
Using desired over have times the quantity: (375 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 1.5 x 5 mL = 7.5 mL. Estimating first confirms the answer must be somewhat more than 5 mL but less than 10 mL, which immediately rules out the decimal-shift answers of 0.75 mL and 15 mL.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.b (Dosage calculations); D/H x Q formulaReport a problem with this question
6. A child weighs 66 lb. The provider orders an antibiotic at 30 mg/kg/day divided every 8 hours. How many milligrams should be given per dose?
- A.450 mg
- B.900 mg
- C.300 mg✓ Answer
- D.660 mg
Convert pounds to kilograms first: 66 lb / 2.2 = 30 kg. The daily dose is 30 kg x 30 mg/kg = 900 mg/day, and every 8 hours means 3 doses per day, so 900 / 3 = 300 mg per dose. Skipping the pound-to-kilogram conversion gives 660 mg, and reporting the daily total gives 900 mg, which are the two most common errors.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.b (Weight-based dosage calculation); 1 kg = 2.2 lbReport a problem with this question
7. A provider orders 0.75 g of a medication PO. The tablets on hand are 250 mg each. How many tablets should the medical assistant give?
- A.3 tablets✓ Answer
- B.1.5 tablets
- C.30 tablets
- D.0.3 tablet
The order and the supply must be in the same unit before dividing. Since 1 g = 1,000 mg, 0.75 g = 750 mg, and 750 mg / 250 mg = 3 tablets. Dividing 0.75 by 250 without converting produces the decimal-shift trap answers.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.b (Metric conversion and dosage calculation); 1 g = 1,000 mgReport a problem with this question
8. When administering a Mantoux tuberculin skin test, the medical assistant should insert the needle:
- A.Bevel up at a 10- to 15-degree angle into the inner forearm until a wheal forms✓ Answer
- B.At a 90-degree angle into the deltoid muscle
- C.Bevel down at a 30-degree angle, then massage the site
- D.At a 45-degree angle into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen
The Mantoux test is an intradermal injection: 0.1 mL is deposited between the layers of the dermis on the inner forearm, bevel up, at a 10- to 15-degree angle, and a raised wheal confirms correct placement. The site is never massaged because that would disperse the antigen; the result is read as induration, not redness, at 48 to 72 hours.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.c.1 (Intradermal route); CDC Mantoux tuberculin skin test procedureReport a problem with this question
9. Which site should the medical assistant use for an intramuscular injection in a 9-month-old infant?
- A.Ventrogluteal
- B.Vastus lateralis✓ Answer
- C.Deltoid
- D.Dorsogluteal
The vastus lateralis in the anterolateral thigh is the preferred IM site for infants and children under 3 years because it is the largest, best-developed muscle mass at that age and is free of major nerves and vessels. The deltoid is too small until about age 3, and the dorsogluteal site is avoided at any age because of the risk of sciatic nerve injury.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.c.1 (IM sites); CDC Vaccine Administration guidelines (site selection by age)Report a problem with this question
10. Which needle and angle are appropriate for a subcutaneous injection in an average-sized adult?
- A.22 gauge, 1.5 inch, at 90 degrees
- B.20 gauge, 1 inch, at 45 degrees
- C.25 gauge, 5/8 inch, at 45 degrees✓ Answer
- D.27 gauge, 3/8 inch, at 15 degrees
Subcutaneous injections deposit medication into the fatty layer beneath the dermis, so a short, fine needle (23 to 25 gauge, 5/8 inch) inserted at 45 degrees reaches that layer without entering muscle. A 22-gauge 1.5-inch needle at 90 degrees describes an intramuscular injection, and a 27-gauge needle at 15 degrees describes an intradermal injection.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.c.2, I.D.2.d (Needle selection); CDC needle gauge/length recommendationsReport a problem with this question
11. Why is the Z-track technique used for certain intramuscular injections?
- A.It speeds absorption so the drug takes effect faster
- B.It seals the medication in the muscle so an irritating or staining drug cannot leak back into subcutaneous tissue✓ Answer
- C.It allows a larger-gauge needle to be used comfortably
- D.It reduces the volume of medication that must be injected
In the Z-track method the skin and subcutaneous tissue are pulled laterally before the needle is inserted and released after withdrawal, so the tissue planes shift out of alignment and close over the needle track. This prevents leakage of drugs such as iron dextran that irritate tissue or permanently stain the skin.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.c.1 (Intramuscular Z-track technique)Report a problem with this question
12. A patient with a documented history of asthma brings in a new prescription for metoprolol. What concern should the medical assistant bring to the provider's attention?
- A.Metoprolol is a beta blocker and may cause bronchoconstriction in a patient with asthma✓ Answer
- B.Metoprolol is a potassium-wasting diuretic and will lower the patient's potassium
- C.Metoprolol is a statin and requires baseline liver function testing
- D.Metoprolol is an ACE inhibitor and commonly causes a dry, persistent cough
The suffix -olol identifies a beta blocker. Because beta blockade can extend to beta-2 receptors in the airways, it opposes bronchodilation and can provoke bronchospasm, making asthma a recognized caution or contraindication. The dry cough belongs to ACE inhibitors (-pril), so recognizing the suffix-to-class pattern is what drives the correct answer.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.1.a and I.D.1.d (Drug classifications; contraindications)Report a problem with this question
13. A patient is starting warfarin therapy. Which instruction should the medical assistant reinforce?
- A.Take aspirin or ibuprofen for any headaches that develop
- B.Stop eating all green leafy vegetables while you are taking this medication
- C.If you miss a dose, take two doses the next day to catch up
- D.Keep your intake of vitamin K-rich foods such as leafy greens consistent from day to day, and report unusual bruising or bleeding✓ Answer
Warfarin works by antagonizing vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so the dose is titrated to the patient's usual vitamin K intake. Wide swings in intake, in either direction, destabilize the INR, which is why consistency rather than elimination is the correct teaching. Aspirin and NSAIDs are avoided because they add bleeding risk on top of anticoagulation.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.1.d and I.A.6 (Drug interactions; patient education)Report a problem with this question
14. Minutes after receiving an injection, a patient develops hives, swelling of the lips, audible wheezing, and a falling blood pressure. What should be done FIRST?
- A.Give an oral antihistamine and observe the patient for 30 minutes
- B.Apply a cold compress to the injection site and recheck vital signs in 15 minutes
- C.Administer an oral corticosteroid to stop the inflammatory response
- D.Administer epinephrine intramuscularly into the anterolateral thigh per office protocol and activate EMS✓ Answer
This combination of urticaria, angioedema, respiratory involvement, and hypotension is anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the only first-line treatment because it produces immediate alpha-mediated vasoconstriction and beta-2-mediated bronchodilation, reversing both the airway obstruction and the shock. Antihistamines and corticosteroids act far too slowly and are adjuncts only.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.B.8.b and I.D.1.c (Anaphylaxis; adverse/allergic reactions)Report a problem with this question
15. Under federal law, a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance such as oxycodone:
- A.May be refilled one time within 30 days of the date issued
- B.May be refilled at the medical assistant's discretion if the patient reports ongoing pain
- C.May be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months of the date issued
- D.May not be refilled at all✓ Answer
21 CFR 1306.12(a) states that no prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance may be refilled; a new prescription is required each time. The five-refills-in-six-months rule applies to Schedules III and IV. A medical assistant never authorizes any refill independently and may only transmit a refill the provider has already approved.
Source: 21 CFR 1306.12(a) (No refilling of Schedule II prescriptions); AAMA Content Outline II.E.5 (Pharmaceutical laws)Report a problem with this question
16. When must the current Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) be given to a patient or parent?
- A.After the vaccine is given, with the discharge paperwork
- B.Before each dose of the vaccine is administered✓ Answer
- C.Only if the patient or parent asks to see it
- D.Once, at the first dose of a multi-dose vaccine series
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act requires that the current VIS be provided before every dose, not just the first, so that consent is informed at each administration. The record must document the VIS edition date and the date it was given, in addition to the vaccine's lot number, manufacturer, expiration date, site, route, and the administering person's name and title.
Source: National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act, 42 U.S.C. 300aa-26; CDC VIS requirements; AAMA Content Outline I.D.3Report a problem with this question
17. A medical assistant checks the vaccine refrigerator log and finds the temperature has risen to 10 degrees C (50 degrees F). What should she do?
- A.Continue using the vaccine, since 10 degrees C is within the recommended range
- B.Label the vaccine 'do not use,' quarantine it, and contact the manufacturer or the immunization program for guidance✓ Answer
- C.Move the vaccine to the freezer to bring the temperature down quickly
- D.Discard all of the vaccine in the refrigerator immediately
The CDC-recommended refrigerator range for vaccine is 2 to 8 degrees C (36 to 46 degrees F), so 10 degrees C is a temperature excursion. Exposed vaccine may or may not still be viable, and only the manufacturer or the immunization program can make that determination, so it is quarantined and labeled rather than discarded or administered. Freezing refrigerated vaccine would destroy it.
Source: CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Toolkit (refrigerator 2-8 degrees C; temperature excursion protocol); AAMA Content Outline I.D.1.eReport a problem with this question
18. An adult patient needs otic drops instilled in the right ear. Which technique is correct?
- A.Pull the pinna up and back and use drops warmed to room temperature✓ Answer
- B.Pull the pinna down and back, as is done for a child under 3
- C.Substitute otic drops with ophthalmic drops if none are available
- D.Instill the drops directly from the refrigerator so they are soothing
In adults the ear canal curves upward, so pulling the pinna up and back straightens it and lets the drops reach the tympanic membrane; in children under 3 the canal points differently and the pinna is pulled down and back. Cold drops stimulate the inner ear and can cause vertigo and nausea. Ophthalmic drops are sterile and may be used in the ear, but otic drops are not sterile and must never be placed in the eye.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.D.2.c (Instillation: eye, ear, nose)Report a problem with this question
19. A patient calls to say her blood pressure readings are still high and asks the medical assistant to increase the dose of her antihypertensive. What should the medical assistant do?
- A.Tell the patient to double the dose until her next appointment
- B.Document the reported readings and forward the request to the provider for a decision✓ Answer
- C.Advise the patient to stop the medication because it clearly is not working
- D.Refer the patient to the pharmacist to adjust the dose
Adjusting a medication dose is a prescribing decision, and a medical assistant does not diagnose, prescribe, or change therapy. Acting independently here would be practicing outside the scope of the credential. The correct role is to gather and document the objective information and route it to the provider, who makes the clinical judgment.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline II.E (Scope of practice for medical assistants); I.D.2.e (Refills follow provider authorization)Report a problem with this question
20. During intake, a patient states, 'I'm allergic to penicillin.' What is the most complete way for the medical assistant to document this?
- A.Write it on a note attached to the outside of the chart so it is easy to see
- B.Leave it blank because the provider will ask about allergies again
- C.Record the drug name together with the specific reaction the patient experienced✓ Answer
- D.Write 'PCN allergy' in the allergy field and move on
Medication and allergy reconciliation requires the reaction, not just the drug name, because it distinguishes a true allergy such as anaphylaxis or hives from an expected side effect such as nausea. That distinction determines whether the drug and related agents must be avoided entirely or can be used with counseling, so recording the drug alone can lead to unnecessary avoidance or to a dangerous re-exposure.
Source: AAMA CMA (AAMA) Exam Content Outline I.A.4.e (Medication and allergy reconciliation); AAMA 2018-2019 Occupational Analysis, task #9 'Review medications and allergies'Report a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the AAMA (CMA) and AMT (RMA) certification content outlines and standard medical-assisting curriculum. Not affiliated with or endorsed by AAMA, AMT, or any certifying body. Study the official candidate handbook and confirm current exam content before testing. About the CMA exam →

1. A provider orders an influenza vaccine, but the patient tells the medical assistant she does not want it. What is the MOST appropriate action?

2. A provider orders albuterol for a patient having an acute asthma attack. To which drug class does albuterol belong, and how does it relieve the attack?

3. How many times, and at what points, should a medical assistant read the label of a medication before giving it to a patient?

4. A medical assistant realizes she has just administered 100 mg of a medication when the order was for 50 mg. What should she do FIRST?

5. The provider orders 375 mg of an oral suspension. The bottle is labeled 250 mg per 5 mL. How many milliliters should the medical assistant give?

6. A child weighs 66 lb. The provider orders an antibiotic at 30 mg/kg/day divided every 8 hours. How many milligrams should be given per dose?

7. A provider orders 0.75 g of a medication PO. The tablets on hand are 250 mg each. How many tablets should the medical assistant give?

8. When administering a Mantoux tuberculin skin test, the medical assistant should insert the needle:

9. Which site should the medical assistant use for an intramuscular injection in a 9-month-old infant?

10. Which needle and angle are appropriate for a subcutaneous injection in an average-sized adult?

11. Why is the Z-track technique used for certain intramuscular injections?

12. A patient with a documented history of asthma brings in a new prescription for metoprolol. What concern should the medical assistant bring to the provider's attention?

13. A patient is starting warfarin therapy. Which instruction should the medical assistant reinforce?

14. Minutes after receiving an injection, a patient develops hives, swelling of the lips, audible wheezing, and a falling blood pressure. What should be done FIRST?

15. Under federal law, a prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance such as oxycodone:

16. When must the current Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) be given to a patient or parent?

17. A medical assistant checks the vaccine refrigerator log and finds the temperature has risen to 10 degrees C (50 degrees F). What should she do?

18. An adult patient needs otic drops instilled in the right ear. Which technique is correct?

19. A patient calls to say her blood pressure readings are still high and asks the medical assistant to increase the dose of her antihypertensive. What should the medical assistant do?

20. During intake, a patient states, 'I'm allergic to penicillin.' What is the most complete way for the medical assistant to document this?