20 General Industry Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. A machine operator is injured and is admitted to the hospital as an in-patient the same day. Under OSHA's reporting rules, how quickly must the employer report this to OSHA?

   • A.Only on the annual Form 300A summary
   • B.Within 8 hours
   • C.Within 72 hours
   • D.Within 24 hours✓ Answer

   OSHA sets two different clocks: a work-related fatality must be reported within 8 hours, while an in-patient hospitalization, amputation, or loss of an eye must be reported within 24 hours of learning of it. The shorter fatality window exists because those events demand immediate OSHA investigation; a hospitalization is reportable only when the admission occurs within 24 hours of the incident.

   Source: 29 CFR 1904.39Report a problem with this question

2. 2. A warehouse worker loads pallets from an elevated platform in a general industry facility. At what height above a lower level does OSHA require fall protection at the unprotected edge of that platform?

   • A.15 feet
   • B.6 feet
   • C.10 feet
   • D.4 feet✓ Answer

   The general industry trigger is 4 feet: employees on a walking-working surface with an unprotected side or edge 4 feet or more above a lower level must be protected by a guardrail, safety net, or personal fall protection system. The familiar 6-foot trigger belongs to the construction standard (29 CFR Part 1926) and does not apply here; protection is also required at any height when working above dangerous equipment.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.28(b)(1)Report a problem with this question

3. 3. Guardrails are installed around a floor hole where tools could fall onto workers below. Under the current general industry walking-working surfaces rule, what is the minimum height of the required toeboard?

   • A.6 inches
   • B.3.5 inches✓ Answer
   • C.2 inches
   • D.4 inches

   The current rule requires a toeboard at least 3.5 inches tall measured from the top edge to the walking-working surface, capable of withstanding 50 pounds of force, because its job is to stop objects from being kicked off the edge. The 4-inch figure that still circulates in older study guides comes from superseded and construction-side material; for reference, guardrail top rails must be 42 inches plus or minus 3 inches high.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.29(k) (2017 walking-working surfaces rule)Report a problem with this question

4. 4. A plant manager wants to tighten security and rearrange storage. Which action complies with OSHA's exit route requirements?

   • A.Locking the rear exit door from the inside during the shift to stop theft
   • B.Storing pallets in the corridor as long as a 20-inch path remains
   • C.Marking a mechanical-room door 'EXIT' so employees have another option
   • D.Keeping the exit access at least 28 inches wide and free of obstructions at all points✓ Answer

   Exit routes must be at least 28 inches wide at all points, kept free of obstructions, adequately lit, and exit doors must be unlocked from the inside and side-hinged, because an escaping employee cannot be delayed by a lock or a blocked aisle. Doors that could be mistaken for an exit must be marked 'Not an Exit' or identified by their use, and security concerns never justify locking employees in.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.36 and 1910.37Report a problem with this question

5. 5. An employer keeps portable fire extinguishers available for employee use. How often must those extinguishers be inspected and maintained?

   • A.Visual inspection weekly and maintenance check monthly
   • B.Visual inspection each shift and maintenance check quarterly
   • C.Visual inspection monthly and maintenance check annually✓ Answer
   • D.Visual inspection annually and maintenance check every 5 years

   A monthly visual inspection confirms the extinguisher is in its place, unobstructed, charged, and undamaged, while the more thorough annual maintenance check verifies internal condition; the maintenance record must be kept for one year. Employers who expect employees to use extinguishers must also train them on initial assignment and at least annually, and travel distance may not exceed 75 feet for Class A or 50 feet for Class B hazards.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.157(e) and (g)Report a problem with this question

6. 6. A shop is adding a new grinding operation. What does OSHA require the employer to do before selecting personal protective equipment for the job?

   • A.Ask the employees to pick whatever PPE they prefer
   • B.Wait until the first injury shows what PPE is needed
   • C.Post a sign requiring safety glasses throughout the building
   • D.Perform a workplace hazard assessment and certify it in writing, identifying the workplace evaluated, the person certifying, and the date✓ Answer

   The employer, not the employee, must assess the workplace to determine whether hazards are present that require PPE, and must document that assessment with a written certification naming the workplace evaluated, the person certifying, and the date. The assessment drives correct selection and fit, and because PPE is the last line of defense in the hierarchy of controls, elimination, substitution, and engineering controls must be considered first.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.132(d)Report a problem with this question

7. 7. Which item may an employer legitimately require an employee to pay for?

   • A.A face shield needed for a chemical mixing task
   • B.Chemical-resistant gloves required by the SDS
   • C.Hearing protectors used in a 95 dBA area
   • D.Non-specialty safety-toe protective footwear that employees are allowed to wear off the job site✓ Answer

   The employer must provide required PPE at no cost to employees, because cost should never be a barrier to protection. The narrow exceptions are non-specialty safety-toe footwear and non-specialty prescription safety eyewear when the employer permits them to be worn off the job site, ordinary clothing and weather gear, and replacement of PPE that an employee has lost or intentionally damaged.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.132(h)Report a problem with this question

8. 8. An employee is being assigned a tight-fitting half-mask respirator for the first time. What is the required order of steps?

   • A.Medical evaluation first, then fit testing before initial use, with fit testing repeated at least annually✓ Answer
   • B.Fit test first, then a medical evaluation only if the employee reports trouble breathing
   • C.Training first, then use; medical evaluation only for SCBA users
   • D.Use the respirator for a trial year, then obtain a medical evaluation

   Wearing a respirator adds breathing resistance, heat, and psychological stress, so the employer must provide a medical evaluation to determine the employee's ability to use one before the employee is fit tested or required to wear it. Fit testing with the same make, model, style, and size follows, must be repeated at least annually, and the facepiece seal cannot be relied on if facial hair crosses the sealing surface.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.134(e) and (f)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. Atmospheric testing of a storage tank shows 18.0% oxygen. Which respiratory protection is appropriate for entry?

   • A.A full-face air-purifying respirator with P100 filters
   • B.A half-mask air-purifying respirator with organic vapor cartridges
   • C.An N95 filtering facepiece
   • D.A supplied-air respirator or SCBA✓ Answer

   Air-purifying respirators only filter contaminants out of the air that is already there; they add no oxygen, so they are useless and dangerous in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. Below 19.5% oxygen the space is oxygen deficient and considered immediately dangerous to life or health, which requires an atmosphere-supplying respirator such as an airline with escape bottle or an SCBA; ventilation, not pure oxygen, is used to correct the atmosphere.

   Source: 29 CFR 1910.134(d)(2); 1910.146(b) hazardous atmosphere definitionReport a problem with this question

10. 10. Personal noise dosimetry shows a maintenance mechanic exposed to 87 dBA as an 8-hour time-weighted average. What must the employer do?

    • A.Enroll the employee in a hearing conservation program, because exposure is at or above the 85 dBA action level✓ Answer
    • B.Require double hearing protection but no monitoring or audiograms
    • C.Immediately shut the area down until exposure falls below 80 dBA
    • D.Nothing; the exposure is below the 90 dBA permissible exposure limit

    OSHA sets a 90 dBA 8-hour TWA permissible exposure limit, but the hearing conservation program is triggered at the lower 85 dBA action level, because measurable hearing loss begins well below the PEL. The program requires exposure monitoring, a baseline and annual audiograms, hearing protectors made available, annual training, and recordkeeping; OSHA also uses a 5 dB exchange rate, so the allowable exposure time halves for every 5 dB increase.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.95(c) action level and (b) PELReport a problem with this question

11. 11. A shipped container label carries the signal word 'Danger.' What does that tell the worker compared with a label that reads 'Warning'?

    • A.The chemical is flammable rather than toxic
    • B.The hazard is more severe; 'Danger' and 'Warning' are the only two signal words, and a label carries only one✓ Answer
    • C.No safety data sheet is available for that chemical
    • D.The container must be kept in a locked cabinet

    Under the GHS-aligned Hazard Communication Standard, 'Danger' is assigned to the more severe hazard categories and 'Warning' to the less severe, and only one signal word may appear on a label so the message is unambiguous. The shipped label must also show the product identifier, hazard statements, pictograms, precautionary statements, and supplier identification, and note that within a hazard class Category 1 is the most severe, not the least.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.1200(f) and Appendix CReport a problem with this question

12. 12. A worker splashes a solvent into his eye. Which safety data sheet section gives the responder the immediate treatment information needed?

    • A.Section 2 — Hazard(s) identification
    • B.Section 14 — Transport information
    • C.Section 4 — First-aid measures✓ Answer
    • D.Section 9 — Physical and chemical properties

    Safety data sheets follow a fixed 16-section order precisely so that responders can find critical information fast under pressure; Section 4 is First-aid measures, including flushing times and symptoms. Sections 1-3 identify the product and its hazards, Section 8 covers exposure controls and PPE, and Sections 12-15 (ecological, disposal, transport, regulatory) are included for GHS consistency but are not enforced by OSHA. Employers must keep SDSs readily accessible during every work shift.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.1200(g) and Appendix DReport a problem with this question

13. 13. A press is being serviced under lockout/tagout. A production worker who normally runs that press, but is not doing the servicing, is which type of employee under the standard?

    • A.Affected employee, who must be notified before the lockout begins and after the devices are removed✓ Answer
    • B.Qualified person
    • C.Other employee, who requires no notification at all
    • D.Authorized employee

    The authorized employee is the one who applies the locks and performs the servicing; the affected employee is one who operates the machine or works in the area where servicing is performed, and must be notified both before energy control begins and after the lockout devices are removed so no one is caught by an unexpected start-up. 'Other' employees are simply trained to recognize a lockout and never to attempt to restart a locked-out machine.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.147(b) definitions and (c)(9) notificationReport a problem with this question

14. 14. An electrician has notified affected employees, shut down the machine, opened and locked the disconnect, and bled off residual hydraulic pressure. What is the next required step before servicing begins?

    • A.Have a supervisor countersign the lock before work starts
    • B.Verify isolation by attempting to operate the machine's normal controls, then return them to the neutral or off position✓ Answer
    • C.Begin disassembly — the lock by itself proves the machine is safe
    • D.Remove the tag so it is not damaged during the work

    After isolating energy sources, applying locks, and releasing or restraining stored energy, the authorized employee must verify that the equipment is actually isolated and de-energized before starting work. The try step is essential because a lock only proves a device was applied, not that the correct disconnect was chosen; controls must be returned to the neutral or off position immediately after the test. A tag alone is a warning device with no physical restraint, so lockout is preferred over tagout.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.147(d)(4)-(6)Report a problem with this question

15. 15. How often must an employer inspect its energy control (lockout/tagout) procedures, and who performs that inspection?

    • A.Only after an accident, by an outside consultant
    • B.Every three years, by any available supervisor
    • C.At least annually, by an authorized employee who is not using the procedure being inspected✓ Answer
    • D.Monthly, by the same employees who use the procedure

    A periodic inspection at least annually is required to identify and correct deviations or inadequacies in the procedure, and it must be conducted by an authorized employee other than those using the procedure being inspected so the review is independent. The employer must certify the inspection, documenting the machine or equipment, the date, the employees included, and the person performing the inspection.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.147(c)(6)Report a problem with this question

16. 16. During a walkthrough you find an unguarded belt-and-pulley drive about 6 feet above the working platform. What does the machine guarding requirement say?

    • A.Power transmission belts and pulleys 7 feet or less above the floor or working platform must be guarded✓ Answer
    • B.Training employees to stay clear can substitute for the guard
    • C.A guard is required only if the drive is within arm's reach at about 3 feet
    • D.No guard is needed because it is not the point of operation

    Mechanical power transmission apparatus — belts, pulleys, shafting, gears, chains, and couplings — located 7 feet or less above the floor or working platform must be guarded, because that zone is within reach of a worker or a snagged sleeve. Guarding duties cover three hazard areas: the point of operation, power transmission apparatus, and other moving parts, and guards must prevent contact, be secured so they cannot be easily removed, and create no new hazard. Training is never a substitute for a required physical guard.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.219(c)(2) and 1910.212(a)(1)Report a problem with this question

17. 17. An entry supervisor is about to test the atmosphere of a permit-required confined space. What is the correct testing order?

    • A.Toxics first, then oxygen, then flammable gases
    • B.Any order, as long as all three are tested before entry
    • C.Flammable gases first, then oxygen, then toxics
    • D.Oxygen first, then flammable gases and vapors, then toxics✓ Answer

    Oxygen is tested first because combustible-gas sensors need a normal oxygen level to read accurately — a low-oxygen atmosphere makes the flammable reading falsely low — so the oxygen result validates the next test; toxics are tested last. Acceptable entry conditions are oxygen between 19.5% and 23.5%, flammables below 10% of the lower flammable limit, and any toxic substance below its permissible exposure limit, and the atmosphere must be retested periodically or monitored continuously during entry.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.146(c)(5)(ii)(C) and (d)(5)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. An entrant collapses inside a permit-required confined space. What must the attendant do?

    • A.Stay outside, order evacuation, summon the rescue service, and attempt non-entry retrieval✓ Answer
    • B.Leave the space to go find the entry supervisor
    • C.Enter only after putting on an air-purifying respirator
    • D.Enter immediately and pull the entrant out

    The attendant must remain outside the space for the duration of entry operations, keep an accurate count of entrants, maintain continuous communication, order evacuation, and summon rescue — the attendant may attempt only non-entry rescue using a retrieval line and must never enter to rescue, because most confined-space fatalities are would-be rescuers who become victims. The attendant also may have no other duties that interfere with monitoring and protecting entrants.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.146(i) attendant dutiesReport a problem with this question

19. 19. A forklift operator was trained, evaluated, and certified two years ago and has had no incidents. What does the powered industrial truck standard require going forward?

    • A.Complete retraining every year regardless of performance
    • B.An evaluation of the operator's performance at least once every three years, plus refresher training if unsafe operation, an accident or near-miss, a new truck type, or changed conditions occur✓ Answer
    • C.Nothing further; the original certification is permanent
    • D.Retraining only if the operator changes employers

    The standard requires an evaluation of each operator's performance at least once every three years — an evaluation, not automatic refresher training, which is the detail most often stated incorrectly. Refresher training is triggered by specific events: observed unsafe operation, an accident or near-miss, an unfavorable evaluation, assignment to a different type of truck, or a change in workplace conditions. Training must combine formal instruction, practical training, and workplace evaluation, and must be certified with the operator's name, training date, evaluation date, and trainer.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.178(l)(4) and (l)(6)Report a problem with this question

20. 20. A new laboratory technician with reasonably anticipated exposure to blood declines the hepatitis B vaccination. Which statement reflects the bloodborne pathogens standard?

    • A.The vaccine must be offered at no cost within 10 working days of initial assignment, the declination must be signed on the required form, and the employee may still accept the vaccine later at no cost✓ Answer
    • B.The employer may reassign the employee to non-exposure work as a penalty for declining
    • C.Declining removes the employee from the written exposure control plan
    • D.The employer may charge the employee for the vaccine if he later changes his mind

    The hepatitis B vaccination series must be made available at no cost, after training and within 10 working days of initial assignment, to every employee with occupational exposure; an employee who declines signs the standard declination statement but remains covered and may accept the vaccination at any later time while still occupationally exposed, still at no cost. Universal precautions — treating all human blood and other potentially infectious materials as infectious — and the written exposure control plan reviewed at least annually continue to apply to that employee.

    Source: 29 CFR 1910.1030(f)(2) and Appendix A declinationReport a problem with this question

Practice questions based on the OSHA Outreach standards (29 CFR 1926 / 1910). Not affiliated with OSHA and not a substitute for the official course or the DOL card. About OSHA training →