29 Process (Technical PM) Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. A product team is building a customer-facing mobile app. Requirements are expected to change as users react to early releases, the customer representative is available daily, and the sponsor wants usable functionality in production every few weeks. Which development approach should the project manager recommend?

   • A.Predictive, with a fully baselined scope before build starts
   • B.Predictive, with a single delivery at the end and monthly status reports
   • C.Adaptive for design only, then predictive execution against a frozen backlog
   • D.Adaptive, delivering in short iterations with frequent customer feedback✓ Answer

   Approach selection is driven by requirements volatility, customer availability and desired delivery cadence. High uncertainty plus continuous customer involvement and frequent releases are the defining conditions for an adaptive approach, because short iterations convert feedback into re-planned work before large amounts of effort are wasted.

   Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 1 — recommend a project development approach (predictive, adaptive or hybrid)Report a problem with this question

2. 2. A program has two work streams: a regulatory reporting module whose requirements are fixed by law and must be fully documented and audited, and a customer portal whose features are still being discovered. What is the correct way to structure a hybrid approach?

   • A.Run the whole program predictively through design, then switch the whole program to agile for build
   • B.Let each team choose its own approach at the start of every iteration
   • C.Run the whole program adaptively and treat the regulatory documentation as technical debt
   • D.Run the regulatory module predictively and the portal adaptively, in parallel, with integration points defined✓ Answer

   Hybrid means tailoring the approach to the nature of each stream of work and running those streams concurrently, not sequencing a predictive phase followed by an agile phase. Fixed, auditable, regulated scope suits predictive control, while emergent scope suits iterative delivery; the integration points are what keep the two synchronized.

   Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 1 — assess project needs and recommend a development approach; hybrid tailoring by nature of the workReport a problem with this question

3. 3. For a critical activity the team estimates: optimistic 8 days, most likely 14 days, pessimistic 32 days. Using the beta (PERT) three-point formula, what is the expected duration?

   • A.16 days✓ Answer
   • B.18 days
   • C.14 days
   • D.20 days

   The beta/PERT expected duration is tE = (O + 4M + P)/6 = (8 + 4x14 + 32)/6 = (8 + 56 + 32)/6 = 96/6 = 16 days. The formula weights the most likely value four times, so the answer is pulled toward 14 rather than to the simple average of 18.

   Source: Three-point (beta/PERT) estimating: tE = (O + 4M + P)/6Report a problem with this question

4. 4. A contractor must estimate the cost of interior finishing for a new office floor. The organization has verified historical data showing an average cost per square meter for comparable finishes, and the floor area is known precisely. Which estimating technique fits best?

   • A.Bottom-up estimating
   • B.Reserve analysis
   • C.Parametric estimating✓ Answer
   • D.Analogous estimating

   Parametric estimating multiplies a statistically validated unit rate by the number of units (cost per square meter x area), so it applies whenever a reliable rate and an accurate quantity both exist. Analogous estimating would only compare to a whole past project, and bottom-up would require decomposing every work package first.

   Source: Cost/duration estimating techniques: parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variablesReport a problem with this question

5. 5. During a WBS review, a stakeholder notices that the sum of the deliverables under a control account does not fully account for the work described by that control account, and that one element covers work outside the approved scope statement. Which principle has been violated?

   • A.The 8/80 heuristic
   • B.The rolling wave principle
   • C.The 100% rule✓ Answer
   • D.Progressive elaboration

   The 100% rule states that a WBS captures all of the work required by the scope and only that work, and that each parent element equals the sum of its children. Missing work breaks the 'all' half of the rule and extra work breaks the 'only' half, so both defects point to the same violation.

   Source: Work breakdown structure decomposition — the 100% ruleReport a problem with this question

6. 6. A project manager is preparing the documents against which scope performance will be measured. Which set constitutes the scope baseline?

   • A.Project charter, requirements documentation and stakeholder register
   • B.Requirements traceability matrix, WBS and schedule baseline
   • C.Scope statement, WBS and WBS dictionary✓ Answer
   • D.Scope management plan, scope statement and change log

   The scope baseline is the approved combination of the project scope statement, the WBS and the WBS dictionary, because together they define deliverables, decompose them into work packages and describe each package in enough detail to measure conformance. It can be changed only through the approved change control process.

   Source: Scope baseline = approved scope statement + WBS + WBS dictionaryReport a problem with this question

7. 7. Near the end of an iteration a developer, wanting to impress the client, adds an animated dashboard that no one requested and that is not in any user story. What should the project manager conclude and do?

   • A.It is a defect; send it back for rework in the next iteration
   • B.It is acceptable value-add because it uses no extra budget
   • C.It is scope creep caused by the customer; log it and continue
   • D.It is gold plating; remove it or route the request through the approved change process if the customer actually wants it✓ Answer

   Adding unrequested functionality on the team's own initiative is gold plating, which is always inappropriate because it consumes capacity, adds untested risk and delivers work the customer never validated or accepted. Scope creep, by contrast, is uncontrolled additions coming from outside the team; either way, scope changes belong in the approved change process.

   Source: Scope management — gold plating (unrequested additions by the team) versus scope creep (uncontrolled external additions)Report a problem with this question

8. 8. An agile team argues during a review: the product owner says a story is not finished because the search filter does not return results in under two seconds; the developers say all stories were unit tested, code reviewed and deployed to staging as always. Which statement correctly separates the two concepts?

   • A.Both are part of the definition of done, so the developers decide
   • B.The two-second response is a story-specific acceptance criterion and the testing steps are the team-wide definition of done✓ Answer
   • C.Both are acceptance criteria, so the product owner decides
   • D.The two-second response is the definition of done and the testing steps are acceptance criteria

   Acceptance criteria are conditions specific to one story or deliverable that determine whether it does what was asked; the definition of done is a single quality standard applied to every item the team completes. Because the two-second threshold applies only to this story, it is an acceptance criterion, and the story is not complete until both it and the definition of done are satisfied.

   Source: Adaptive quality practice — acceptance criteria (item-specific) versus definition of done (team-wide standard)Report a problem with this question

9. 9. Halfway through a product development project, USD 2 million has been spent and USD 800,000 of work remains. A competitor's launch has cut the expected lifetime benefit of the product to about USD 300,000. What should the project manager recommend?

   • A.Continue but stop reporting benefits until the product is launched
   • B.Reduce quality standards so the remaining work costs less than USD 300,000
   • C.Present the updated business case and recommend terminating the project, since remaining cost exceeds remaining value✓ Answer
   • D.Continue, because USD 2 million has already been invested and cancelling would waste it

   The USD 2 million already spent is a sunk cost and is irrelevant to a go-forward decision; only the remaining USD 800,000 investment against the remaining USD 300,000 of benefit matters, and that comparison is unfavorable. Value is assessed continuously, so when the business case no longer holds the project manager escalates the analysis and recommends termination rather than delivering on plan.

   Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 3 — examine business value throughout the project; sunk costs are excluded from go-forward decisionsReport a problem with this question

10. 10. A twelve-month platform replacement is planned as a single go-live at month twelve. The sponsor is anxious because no benefit will be realized until then. What is the most effective recommendation?

    • A.Move the go-live earlier and defer testing to post-implementation
    • B.Shorten the schedule by fast tracking every activity on the critical path
    • C.Add a monthly steering committee meeting to increase visibility
    • D.Identify a minimum viable product and release the highest-value increment early, then deliver further increments✓ Answer

    Incremental delivery of a minimum viable product starts benefit realization earlier and produces real usage feedback that de-risks the remaining scope, which is why value-based delivery favors releasing the highest-value usable slice first. More meetings add reporting but no value, and compressing or skipping testing trades risk for schedule without changing when benefits begin.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 3 — assess opportunities to deliver value incrementallyReport a problem with this question

11. 11. A product owner must order three backlog items and asks the project manager for a value-based method. Feature A: business value 8, size 2. Feature B: business value 9, size 8. Feature C: business value 6, size 3. Using weighted shortest job first (value divided by size), which should be scheduled first?

    • A.All three simultaneously, to balance the load
    • B.Feature C
    • C.Feature B
    • D.Feature A✓ Answer

    Weighted shortest job first divides value by job size: A = 8/2 = 4.0, B = 9/8 = 1.125, C = 6/3 = 2.0, so A delivers the most value per unit of effort and goes first. Ranking by raw value alone would wrongly pick B, and starting everything at once inflates work in progress and delays all value.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 3 — prioritize work based on value; WSJF = value / job sizeReport a problem with this question

12. 12. Analysis shows several team members are over-allocated in weeks 5 to 8. The sponsor has stated the completion date cannot move. Which technique should the project manager apply?

    • A.Resource smoothing, because it adjusts activities only within their available float✓ Answer
    • B.Fast tracking, because overlapping activities frees resources
    • C.Resource leveling, because it guarantees the end date
    • D.Crashing, because it always shortens the critical path

    Resource smoothing moves activities only within their free and total float, so the critical path and the project finish date are unchanged — which is exactly the constraint the sponsor imposed. Resource leveling can respect hard resource limits but may delay activities beyond their float and therefore extend the end date.

    Source: Resource optimization — resource smoothing does not change the critical path; resource leveling may change itReport a problem with this question

13. 13. During daily coordination a developer reports that the shared test environment is down today and integration testing cannot proceed until it is restored. Where should the project manager record this?

    • A.Issue log, because it is a current condition already affecting the work✓ Answer
    • B.Risk register, because testing may be delayed
    • C.Lessons learned register, because it will be useful to future projects
    • D.Assumption log, because the team assumed the environment would be available

    An issue is a condition that has already occurred and is affecting objectives now, so it goes in the issue log with an owner and a target resolution date. A risk register entry describes an uncertain future event; once that event occurs it stops being a risk and becomes an issue.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 9 — identify and maintain project artifacts; issue log versus risk registerReport a problem with this question

14. 14. A buyer needs a specialized research service. The technical approach is genuinely uncertain and the total effort cannot be defined in advance. Which contract type is most appropriate, and why?

    • A.Firm fixed price, because sellers will accurately estimate uncertain work
    • B.Firm fixed price, because it caps the buyer's cost regardless of scope
    • C.Cost plus incentive fee with no target cost, because incentives remove all buyer risk
    • D.Cost plus fixed fee, because the buyer accepts cost risk when scope cannot be defined✓ Answer

    Cost-reimbursable contracts such as cost plus fixed fee place cost risk on the buyer, which is the appropriate allocation when scope cannot be defined well enough for a seller to price it. Forcing a firm fixed price onto undefined work either produces heavily padded bids or drives the seller toward disputes and change claims, because fixed price shifts cost risk entirely to the seller.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 5 — select preferred contract types; risk allocation of fixed-price versus cost-reimbursable contractsReport a problem with this question

15. 15. A cost plus incentive fee contract has a target cost of USD 200,000, a target fee of USD 20,000 and an 80/20 buyer/seller share ratio. The seller completes the work for an actual cost of USD 180,000. What is the total amount the buyer pays?

    • A.USD 216,000
    • B.USD 204,000✓ Answer
    • C.USD 220,000
    • D.USD 200,000

    The underrun is 200,000 − 180,000 = 20,000, and the seller's 20% share of that saving is 4,000, so the earned fee is 20,000 + 4,000 = 24,000. Total payment equals actual cost plus fee: 180,000 + 24,000 = USD 204,000, which is why an incentive fee rewards the seller only in proportion to the agreed share ratio.

    Source: Cost plus incentive fee — final price = actual cost + target fee + (seller share x (target cost − actual cost))Report a problem with this question

16. 16. An organization knows the business outcome it needs but not how to achieve it technically, and wants suppliers to propose both a solution and a price. Which solicitation document should be issued?

    • A.Request for quotation (RFQ)
    • B.Request for information (RFI)
    • C.Purchase order
    • D.Request for proposal (RFP)✓ Answer

    A request for proposal is used when the buyer needs sellers to design and propose an approach as well as price it, so proposals are evaluated against source selection criteria defined before bids are received. An RFI only gathers market information and an RFQ assumes the solution is already specified and compares price alone.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 5 — plan and manage procurement; solicitation documents RFI, RFQ, RFPReport a problem with this question

17. 17. A risk that was identified, analyzed and reserved for during planning has now occurred, and its cost impact falls within the amount set aside for it. What should the project manager do?

    • A.Absorb the cost by reducing scope elsewhere without reporting it
    • B.Apply the contingency reserve, which the project manager controls and which is inside the cost baseline✓ Answer
    • C.Submit a change request to increase the cost baseline by the impact amount
    • D.Request management reserve from the sponsor, since any unplanned spending needs approval

    Contingency reserve is funded for identified 'known-unknown' risks, sits inside the cost baseline, and is spent at the project manager's discretion when the risk it covers materializes. Management reserve addresses unknown-unknowns, sits outside the cost baseline and requires management approval, so it is not the correct source here.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 6 — manage financial reserves; contingency reserve (inside baseline, PM-controlled) versus management reserve (outside baseline, management-approved)Report a problem with this question

18. 18. Work package estimates for a project total USD 800,000. Contingency reserve is USD 80,000 and management reserve is USD 50,000. What is the cost baseline?

    • A.USD 850,000
    • B.USD 800,000
    • C.USD 930,000
    • D.USD 880,000✓ Answer

    The cost baseline equals the aggregated work package estimates plus contingency reserve: 800,000 + 80,000 = USD 880,000. Management reserve is added on top of the baseline to form the total project budget of USD 930,000, which is why it is not part of the measurement baseline used for earned value.

    Source: Cost baseline = work package estimates + contingency reserve; total budget = cost baseline + management reserveReport a problem with this question

19. 19. A project manager quantifies three residual exposures for contingency funding: a 30% chance of a USD 200,000 loss, a 50% chance of a USD 40,000 loss, and a 20% chance of a USD 50,000 saving. What is the net expected monetary value?

    • A.USD 70,000✓ Answer
    • B.USD 90,000
    • C.USD 80,000
    • D.USD 60,000

    Expected monetary value multiplies each probability by its impact and sums them, with threats positive and opportunities negative: (0.30 x 200,000) + (0.50 x 40,000) − (0.20 x 50,000) = 60,000 + 20,000 − 10,000 = USD 70,000. Opportunities are netted against threats because contingency funding only needs to cover the expected net exposure.

    Source: Expected monetary value (EMV) = sum of (probability x impact), used to size contingency reservesReport a problem with this question

20. 20. A quality manager is classifying costs. Which item is an appraisal cost?

    • A.Reworking units that failed internal testing
    • B.Honoring warranty claims from customers
    • C.Independent testing and inspection of finished units✓ Answer
    • D.Training operators on the new assembly procedure

    Appraisal costs are spent to measure and verify conformance — testing, inspection and audits — and together with prevention costs (such as training) they form the cost of conformance. Rework is an internal failure cost and warranty claims are an external failure cost, both of which are costs of nonconformance and typically far more expensive than preventing the defect.

    Source: Cost of quality — conformance (prevention, appraisal) versus nonconformance (internal failure, external failure)Report a problem with this question

21. 21. A control chart for a manufacturing measurement shows the last seven consecutive points all above the mean, though every point is still inside the upper and lower control limits and inside customer specification limits. What should the team conclude?

    • A.The control limits should be widened to match the specification limits
    • B.Nothing can be concluded until a point falls outside the specification limits
    • C.The process is out of control and an assignable cause should be investigated✓ Answer
    • D.The process is stable because no point exceeds a control limit

    Under the rule of seven, seven consecutive points on one side of the mean indicate a non-random pattern, so the process is out of control even though no single point breached a control limit. Control limits reflect what the process is capable of and are set from process data, while specification limits come from the customer and are never used to judge statistical control.

    Source: Control charts — rule of seven (seven consecutive points on one side of the mean); control limits versus specification limitsReport a problem with this question

22. 22. A network has Start → A (5 days) → then B (8 days) and C (4 days) in parallel → both feed D (6 days) → End. What is the total float of activity C?

    • A.4 days✓ Answer
    • B.6 days
    • C.0 days
    • D.9 days

    The critical path is A-B-D = 5 + 8 + 6 = 19 days, while path A-C-D = 5 + 4 + 6 = 15 days; total float on the non-critical path equals the difference, 19 − 15 = 4 days. Total float is the time an activity can slip without delaying the project finish, and it is zero on the critical path.

    Source: Critical path method — total float = length of critical path − length of the path containing the activityReport a problem with this question

23. 23. A project must finish four weeks earlier. No additional budget is available, and the sponsor has ruled out reducing scope. Which compression technique applies, and what is its main consequence?

    • A.Fast tracking; overlapping sequential critical-path activities increases the risk of rework✓ Answer
    • B.Fast tracking; it reduces both cost and risk by removing dependencies
    • C.Resource leveling; it shortens the critical path automatically
    • D.Crashing; it shortens duration at no additional cost

    Fast tracking performs activities that were planned in sequence at least partly in parallel, which costs no extra money but raises the chance of rework because later work starts before its predecessor's output is final. Crashing shortens duration by adding resources and therefore increases cost, which the no-budget constraint rules out.

    Source: Schedule compression — crashing adds cost, fast tracking adds risk of rework; neither reduces scopeReport a problem with this question

24. 24. On a release burnup chart, the completed-work line has risen at a steady slope for six iterations, but the total-scope line has risen in each of the last three iterations. What does this most likely indicate?

    • A.The chart is wrong, because a burnup line cannot rise
    • B.Scope is growing while throughput is steady, so the forecast completion date is moving out✓ Answer
    • C.Team velocity is falling and the team needs more members
    • D.The team is ahead of plan because completed work keeps increasing

    A burnup chart plots completed work and total scope as two separate lines precisely so that added scope can be distinguished from reduced productivity. A steady completed-work slope means throughput is unchanged, so the widening gap is caused by scope additions and the projected intersection of the two lines — the forecast finish — moves later.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 9 — assess progress using metrics; burnup chart interpretation (completed work versus total scope)Report a problem with this question

25. 25. A hybrid program has BAC = USD 500,000. The plan called for 40% of the work to be complete today; actual completion is 30% and actual cost to date is USD 180,000. What is the correct assessment?

    • A.Ahead of schedule and under budget; CV = +30,000
    • B.Behind schedule but under budget; SV = −50,000 and CPI = 1.20
    • C.On schedule but over budget; SPI = 1.0 and CPI = 0.83
    • D.Behind schedule and over budget; CV = −30,000 and SPI = 0.75✓ Answer

    PV = 40% x 500,000 = 200,000 and EV = 30% x 500,000 = 150,000, so CV = EV − AC = 150,000 − 180,000 = −30,000 and SV = EV − PV = 150,000 − 200,000 = −50,000; SPI = 150,000/200,000 = 0.75 and CPI = 150,000/180,000 = 0.83. Negative variances and indices below 1.0 are unfavorable, meaning the project is both behind schedule and over budget.

    Source: Earned value management: EV = % complete x BAC; CV = EV − AC; SV = EV − PV; CPI = EV/AC; SPI = EV/PVReport a problem with this question

26. 26. A project has BAC = USD 800,000, EV = USD 200,000 and AC = USD 250,000. Cost performance to date is expected to continue for the rest of the project. What are the estimate at completion and the variance at completion?

    • A.EAC = USD 850,000 and VAC = −USD 50,000
    • B.EAC = USD 640,000 and VAC = +USD 160,000
    • C.EAC = USD 800,000 and VAC = USD 0
    • D.EAC = USD 1,000,000 and VAC = −USD 200,000✓ Answer

    When current cost variances are typical of future performance, EAC = BAC/CPI; CPI = 200,000/250,000 = 0.80, so EAC = 800,000/0.80 = USD 1,000,000. VAC = BAC − EAC = 800,000 − 1,000,000 = −USD 200,000, a negative value signalling a forecast overrun. The alternative formula EAC = AC + (BAC − EV) would apply only if the overrun were treated as a one-off, atypical event.

    Source: Earned value forecasting: EAC = BAC/CPI (typical variances); VAC = BAC − EACReport a problem with this question

27. 27. A project has BAC = USD 600,000, EV = USD 240,000 and AC = USD 300,000. Management insists the original budget must still be met. What is the to-complete performance index, and what does it mean?

    • A.1.20; the remaining work must be performed more efficiently than the work done so far✓ Answer
    • B.0.80; the team can afford to be less efficient than it has been
    • C.0.83; the project is already forecast to finish under budget
    • D.1.25; the budget will be met if performance simply continues

    TCPI against the original budget is (BAC − EV)/(BAC − AC) = (600,000 − 240,000)/(600,000 − 300,000) = 360,000/300,000 = 1.20. Because the current CPI is only 240,000/300,000 = 0.80, a required index above 1.0 means every remaining dollar must buy more work than it has to date, which is a warning that the budget target may be unrealistic.

    Source: To-complete performance index: TCPI = (BAC − EV)/(BAC − AC) when the BAC remains the targetReport a problem with this question

28. 28. Recurring defects are appearing in the same module in every iteration. What should the project manager do first to drive continuous improvement?

    • A.Facilitate a root cause analysis with the team, using techniques such as cause-and-effect and Pareto analysis✓ Answer
    • B.Reassign the module to a different team to break the pattern
    • C.Increase the defect tolerance in the definition of done so the iterations can close
    • D.Add a mandatory extra inspection step at the end of every iteration

    Continuous improvement requires eliminating the cause rather than catching the symptom, so the team first analyzes why the defects arise using cause-and-effect diagrams and Pareto analysis to target the few causes producing most of the failures. Adding inspection only raises appraisal cost without preventing the defect, and loosening the definition of done conceals the quality problem.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 7 — conduct ongoing quality reviews and implement continuous improvement; prevention over inspectionReport a problem with this question

29. 29. A sponsor cancels a project at the end of its second phase because the market opportunity disappeared. What must the project manager do?

    • A.Release the team immediately and archive nothing, since no deliverable will be handed over
    • B.Perform the closing activities: obtain formal acceptance of what was completed, close out procurements and financials, capture lessons learned, then release resources✓ Answer
    • C.Keep the project open at zero spend in case the market recovers
    • D.Transfer the remaining budget to another project and close the accounts informally

    A project or phase is formally closed whether it succeeds or is terminated early, because contractual obligations, financial accounts and organizational learning must all be settled and archived. Formal acceptance and closeout of procurements and finances precede releasing the team, so resources are not dispersed before the closure work is finished.

    Source: PMP Examination Content Outline, Domain II (Process), Task 10 — conclude activities to close the project or phase, including terminated projectsReport a problem with this question

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