25 Emergency Response Practice Questions & Answers

1. 1. You are the first person to reach an unresponsive visitor collapsed in a lobby. You hold no current first aid or CPR certification. What is the correct first action?

   • A.Attempt rescue breathing based on what you have seen demonstrated on video
   • B.Search the person's belongings for medication and administer whatever you find
   • C.Call 911 immediately, then keep the area clear and safe for arriving emergency personnel✓ Answer
   • D.Move the person to a quieter area so they can rest until they recover

   An unarmed guard's medical role is to summon professional help and control the scene, not to provide care beyond training. Official guidance directs the guard to call 911 and keep the situation and area safe and clear for emergency personnel, and to avoid attempting lifesaving measures of any type if not trained or certified. Untrained intervention delays EMS and creates liability, and administering medication is never within a guard's authority.

   Source: CA BSIS Power to Arrest & Appropriate Use of Force Training Manual (July 2023), p.38 — call 911, keep the area safe/clear, avoid untrained lifesaving measuresReport a problem with this question

2. 2. A fight leaves blood on a floor and on a door handle at your post. Under the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens standard, how must you treat that blood?

   • A.Treat it as safe once it has dried, since dried blood cannot transmit disease
   • B.Treat it as infectious only if you know the person has a diagnosed bloodborne illness
   • C.Treat all human blood and certain body fluids as if they are infectious, using universal precautions and employer-provided PPE✓ Answer
   • D.Treat it as a housekeeping matter only, since guards are exempt from the standard

   Universal precautions is the required approach: all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as if known to be infectious for HIV, HBV and other bloodborne pathogens, because a person's infection status cannot be known at the scene. The employer must supply appropriate PPE at no cost to the employee, and hands must be washed immediately or as soon as feasible after glove removal.

   Source: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030(b) and (d)(1) — universal precautions; (d)(3) employer-provided PPE at no costReport a problem with this question

3. 3. Good Samaritan laws generally protect a person who renders emergency aid. Which situation falls OUTSIDE that protection?

   • A.Care given gratuitously and in good faith at the scene of an emergency
   • B.Care given to an unconscious adult under implied consent
   • C.Care that amounts to gross negligence or willful and wanton misconduct✓ Answer
   • D.Care that turns out to be imperfect but was reasonable under the circumstances

   Good Samaritan protection is conditioned on aid that is gratuitous, in good faith, and measured against what an ordinary reasonably prudent person would do. The statutes expressly withhold immunity for gross negligence or willful and wanton misconduct, because that conduct is a reckless departure from the reasonable standard rather than a good-faith mistake. Implied consent for an unconscious adult and honest imperfect care remain covered.

   Source: Good Samaritan doctrine, e.g. Fla. Stat. 768.13 — gratuitous, good-faith care; no immunity for gross negligence or willful/wanton misconductReport a problem with this question

4. 4. An AED has been brought to a collapsed adult and the pads are applied. What must happen while the device analyzes the rhythm and if it advises a shock?

   • A.Continue chest compressions during analysis so blood flow is never interrupted
   • B.Hold the patient still by the shoulders so movement does not disturb the reading
   • C.Nobody touches the patient during analysis or the shock, and compressions resume immediately after the shock✓ Answer
   • D.Wait several minutes after the shock before resuming any compressions

   Contact with the patient during analysis introduces motion artifact that can cause the AED to misread the rhythm, and contact during discharge exposes the rescuer to the shock. Current certifying-agency guidelines therefore require everyone to stand clear for analysis and shock, then resume compressions immediately to minimize the interruption in blood flow that follows defibrillation.

   Source: Current AHA BLS guidance on AED use — clear the patient for analysis and shock; resume compressions immediately after shock deliveryReport a problem with this question

5. 5. Which sequence best describes the unified Chain of Survival concept a guard should support during a sudden cardiac arrest?

   • A.Locate a supervisor, obtain written authorization, then begin care once approved
   • B.Identify the medical cause, select a treatment, then notify the family
   • C.Early recognition and activation of EMS, early high-quality CPR, early defibrillation, then advanced and post-arrest care✓ Answer
   • D.Move the patient to the lobby, wait for EMS, then complete an incident report

   Survival from sudden cardiac arrest depends on time-critical links performed in order: someone must recognize the arrest and activate EMS, high-quality CPR must maintain circulation, and defibrillation must occur as early as possible before advanced care takes over. A guard supports the early links by recognizing collapse, calling for help, and getting the AED to the scene; hunting for authorization or diagnosing the cause wastes the minutes the chain depends on.

   Source: AHA Chain of Survival (2025 consolidation into a single unified chain) — recognition/activation, CPR, defibrillation, advanced and post-arrest care, recoveryReport a problem with this question

6. 6. After removing contaminated gloves used during a first aid response, what does the bloodborne pathogens standard require?

   • A.Rinse the gloves with hand sanitizer and return them to the first aid kit
   • B.Wash hands immediately, or as soon as feasible, after glove removal✓ Answer
   • C.Reuse the gloves for the rest of the shift if they are not visibly torn
   • D.Skip handwashing if the gloves appeared intact during the response

   Gloves can have unnoticed pinholes and hands are readily contaminated during removal, so the standard requires handwashing immediately or as soon as feasible after glove removal. Single-use gloves are discarded, not reused or disinfected, because reprocessing them cannot restore their barrier integrity.

   Source: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(2)(v)-(vi) — handwashing immediately or as soon as feasible after glove removal; single-use gloves discardedReport a problem with this question

7. 7. An employee at your site is stuck by a discarded needle while emptying a trash container. What is the correct handling of the needle and the exposure?

   • A.Have the employee finish the shift and report the stick only if symptoms appear
   • B.Do not bend or recap the needle; place it in a sharps container and route the employee to the free, confidential post-exposure evaluation✓ Answer
   • C.Wrap the needle in tape and keep it in the guard office as evidence of the incident
   • D.Recap the needle carefully so nobody else is stuck, then discard it in the regular trash

   Contaminated sharps must not be bent, recapped or removed, because those manipulations are a leading cause of secondary sticks; they go directly into an approved sharps container. Any exposure incident triggers an employer-provided post-exposure evaluation and follow-up that is confidential and at no cost to the employee, and delay reduces the effectiveness of prophylaxis.

   Source: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030(d)(2)(vii) no bending/recapping of contaminated needles; (f)(3) confidential, no-cost post-exposure evaluationReport a problem with this question

8. 8. A guest tells you they are having chest pain and asks you to give them two aspirin from the first aid kit. What should you do?

   • A.Tell the guest to drive themselves to a hospital and continue your patrol
   • B.Decline to administer any medication, call 911 immediately, and stay with the person until EMS arrives✓ Answer
   • C.Give the aspirin only after the guest signs a waiver releasing you from liability
   • D.Give the aspirin, since it is a common over-the-counter remedy for chest pain

   Administering medication requires medical authority a security guard does not have, and aspirin is contraindicated for some patients, so giving it could cause harm and is outside the guard's scope regardless of any signed waiver. Chest pain is a potential cardiac emergency, so the correct actions are to activate EMS at once, keep the person calm and still, and hand the situation to trained responders.

   Source: CA BSIS training manual, p.38 — call 911 and avoid lifesaving measures beyond training; guards have no authority to diagnose or administer medicationReport a problem with this question

9. 9. A small fire is burning in an energized electrical panel. Why is water the wrong extinguishing agent here?

   • A.Water conducts electricity and can carry current back to the operator; a Class C rated agent is required while the equipment is energized✓ Answer
   • B.Water is only effective on combustible metals such as magnesium
   • C.Water is too cold and will crack the panel housing
   • D.Water is prohibited on all fires by fire codes regardless of class

   Class C designates fire in energized electrical equipment, and the hazard that defines the class is electrical conductivity: a water stream forms a conductive path back to the person holding the extinguisher. A non-conductive agent must be used while the equipment is energized; once power is removed, the fire reverts to a Class A or B fire in the burning materials.

   Source: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.157 / NFPA 10 — Class C = energized electrical equipment; de-energizing reverts the fire to Class A or BReport a problem with this question

10. 10. A deep fryer in a commercial kitchen ignites. What is the correct response regarding extinguishing agent?

    • A.Use a pressurized water extinguisher, since kitchen fires are ordinary combustibles
    • B.Use a Class D extinguisher, which is designed for kitchen grease
    • C.Throw a bucket of water on the fryer to cool the oil quickly
    • D.Use a Class K rated extinguisher or the kitchen suppression system; never apply water to burning cooking oil✓ Answer

    Class K covers cooking oils and fats, which burn far above the boiling point of water. Water introduced into hot oil flashes instantly to steam and violently ejects burning grease outward, spreading the fire and endangering anyone nearby. Class K agents work by saponifying the oil surface and cooling it, and Class D is reserved for combustible metals.

    Source: NFPA 10 / OSHA 1910.157 — Class K for cooking oils and fats; water on grease fires causes violent steam expansion and fire spreadReport a problem with this question

11. 11. What does the PASS acronym describe, and what is the second step?

    • A.Alarm testing procedure; activate the pull station
    • B.Evacuation staging; assemble at the rendezvous point
    • C.The fire response order; alert the occupants
    • D.Portable extinguisher technique; aim at the base of the fire✓ Answer

    PASS is the operating technique for a portable extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side. Aiming at the base matters because the agent must reach the burning fuel itself; spraying the flame tips accomplishes nothing. PASS is frequently confused with RACE, which is the overall fire response sequence rather than an extinguisher technique.

    Source: NFPA 10 extinguisher operation — PASS: Pull, Aim at the base, Squeeze, SweepReport a problem with this question

12. 12. You discover a fire in an occupied storage room. Which sequence reflects the RACE response order?

    • A.Report to the supervisor, Assess the damage, Clear the room, then Escort visitors
    • B.Retrieve the extinguisher, Aim it, Cover the exits, then Evacuate
    • C.Restrict access, Announce over the intercom, Count the occupants, then Escape
    • D.Rescue anyone in immediate danger, Activate the alarm and call for help, Confine the fire by closing doors, then Extinguish if trained or Evacuate✓ Answer

    RACE orders the response by what saves the most lives soonest: people in immediate danger come first, the alarm brings both occupants and the fire department into play, closing doors confines heat and smoke and buys evacuation time, and only then is extinguishment considered, and only by someone trained facing a small fire. RACE is the response order; PASS is the separate extinguisher technique.

    Source: Standard fire response protocol RACE — Rescue, Alarm/Activate, Confine, Extinguish or EvacuateReport a problem with this question

13. 13. Under what condition should an unarmed guard NOT attempt to fight a fire with a portable extinguisher?

    • A.Whenever another employee is present who could witness the attempt
    • B.When the fire has spread beyond its point of origin, smoke fills the space, or the escape route behind the guard is threatened✓ Answer
    • C.Only when the extinguisher gauge shows it was serviced more than a month ago
    • D.Whenever the building's fire alarm has already been activated

    A portable extinguisher is designed only for a small incipient fire. Once the fire has grown past its origin, once smoke makes the space untenable, or once the escape path is compromised, the extinguisher cannot control the fire and the attempt traps the guard. The correct action then is to evacuate, close doors behind you, and let the fire department handle it.

    Source: OSHA 1910.157 incipient-stage firefighting; NFPA guidance — fight only a small fire, with a clear escape route, if trainedReport a problem with this question

14. 14. A building fire alarm sounds while you are escorting a visitor on the eighth floor. What do you do?

    • A.Use the elevator, since it is faster than eight flights of stairs
    • B.Return the visitor to the office they came from and continue the escort later
    • C.Treat the alarm as real, direct the visitor to the nearest safe exit stairwell, and never use the elevators✓ Answer
    • D.Wait in place until someone confirms whether the alarm is a false one

    Every alarm is treated as a real fire until the authority having jurisdiction says otherwise, because waiting for confirmation consumes the evacuation window. Elevators are never used during a fire: they can lose power, their shafts carry smoke, and they may open onto the fire floor. Exit stairwells are the protected means of egress and are the correct route.

    Source: NFPA 101 Life Safety Code means of egress; standard fire evacuation practice — treat alarms as real, use stairs not elevatorsReport a problem with this question

15. 15. The sprinkler system in your building is taken out of service for repairs during your shift. What is your role under a fire watch?

    • A.Disable the building fire alarm so it does not sound while the system is impaired
    • B.Patrol the affected areas continuously, watch for any sign of fire, and be ready to notify occupants and the fire department immediately✓ Answer
    • C.Suspend all patrols in the affected areas until the contractor finishes the repair
    • D.Lock the affected areas so no one can enter and create a fire hazard

    A fire watch substitutes human detection for the impaired automatic protection, so it only works if someone continuously patrols the affected area and can raise the alarm at the first sign of fire. Locking areas, disabling alarms or suspending patrols each remove protection rather than replace it and would leave the building with no detection at all.

    Source: NFPA 25 / NFPA 1 fire watch requirements when a fire protection system is impaired — continuous patrol and immediate notification capabilityReport a problem with this question

16. 16. OSHA requires an Emergency Action Plan to contain certain elements. Which element belongs to the Emergency Action Plan rather than the Fire Prevention Plan?

    • A.Procedures to control accumulation of flammable and combustible waste materials
    • B.Procedures to account for all employees after evacuation is complete✓ Answer
    • C.A list of major fire hazards and their proper handling and storage
    • D.Names of employees responsible for maintaining fire control equipment

    The Emergency Action Plan governs what happens during an emergency, so accounting for all employees after evacuation is one of its mandatory elements, alongside reporting procedures, evacuation procedures and exit assignments, critical-operations and rescue/medical duties, and contact persons. The other three choices are Fire Prevention Plan elements, which address preventing fires from starting rather than responding to them.

    Source: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.38(c)(4) — EAP must include procedures to account for all employees after evacuation; contrast 1910.39(c) Fire Prevention Plan elementsReport a problem with this question

17. 17. During a building evacuation you encounter an occupant who uses a wheelchair and cannot use the stairs. What is the appropriate action?

    • A.Carry them down the stairs yourself as quickly as possible
    • B.Assist them to the designated area of refuge, then report their exact location to the fire department on arrival✓ Answer
    • C.Place them in an elevator and send them to the ground floor
    • D.Leave them where they are and say nothing, since responders will search every floor

    An area of refuge is a protected space, typically at a stair landing, where a person who cannot self-evacuate can wait safely with communication to responders. Untrained carrying risks injury to both people and can block the stairway for everyone else, and elevators are never used during a fire. The critical step is telling the fire department exactly where the person is so the rescue team can reach them.

    Source: NFPA 101 Life Safety Code areas of refuge; OSHA 1910.38(c)(4) accounting for occupants and reporting to respondersReport a problem with this question

18. 18. After occupants reach the assembly point during an evacuation, an employee says he left his laptop and wants to go back inside. What is the correct response?

    • A.Deny re-entry; nobody returns until the authority having jurisdiction gives the all-clear✓ Answer
    • B.Escort him in yourself so he is not unaccompanied inside the building
    • C.Allow it if the alarm has stopped sounding
    • D.Allow it if he promises to be quick and stays on the ground floor

    An alarm that stops sounding is not an all-clear; conditions such as smoke spread, structural damage or a secondary hazard may still be present and only the responding authority having jurisdiction can determine the building is safe. Allowing re-entry also corrupts the occupant accountability count, so responders may search for someone who is actually inside or stop searching for someone who is not.

    Source: OSHA 1910.38(c)(4) employee accountability after evacuation; AHJ all-clear before re-entryReport a problem with this question

19. 19. You answer a phone call in which the caller states a bomb has been placed in the building. What should you do while the caller is still on the line?

    • A.Keep the caller talking as long as possible, do not hang up, and record their exact words, voice traits and background sounds on the bomb threat checklist✓ Answer
    • B.Tell the caller you are recording the call and demand that they identify themselves before continuing
    • C.Put the caller on hold and radio every guard on the property with the details
    • D.Hang up at once and pull the nearest fire alarm to start an evacuation

    Every additional second on the line yields information investigators need: the device's stated location and timing, the caller's voice characteristics, background sounds and exact threat language. The checklist directs the recipient not to hang up even if the caller does, and to notify authorities from a different phone. Broadcasting on a two-way radio is specifically cautioned against because radio signals have the potential to detonate a device.

    Source: DHS/CISA Office for Bombing Prevention Bomb Threat Checklist — keep caller on the line, do not hang up, record exact wording; do not use two-way radios or cell phonesReport a problem with this question

20. 20. During patrol you find an unattended package with no return address, excessive postage and a strange odor. What is the correct action?

    • A.Do not touch or move it; isolate the area, keep people away, and notify management and law enforcement from a safe distance✓ Answer
    • B.Cover it with a blanket to contain any blast and continue your patrol
    • C.Carry it outside to an open area away from the building
    • D.Gently shake the package to determine whether anything is moving inside

    No return address, excessive postage and an odor are recognized suspicious-package indicators. An unarmed guard has neither the training nor the equipment to assess a possible device, and any handling, movement, shaking or covering can initiate it. The correct role is recognize, isolate, deny entry, notify, and hand the item over to bomb technicians.

    Source: DHS/CISA suspicious package indicators and Bomb Threat Guide — do not touch or move a suspicious item; isolate and notifyReport a problem with this question

21. 21. After a bomb threat is received at a client site, who decides whether to evacuate the building?

    • A.The person who received the call, because they judged the caller's sincerity
    • B.Whichever supervisor answers the radio first, regardless of the facility plan
    • C.The guard on post, because the guard is closest to the threat
    • D.Management and law enforcement decide among evacuate, shelter in place or no action under the facility plan; the guard reports fully and then executes✓ Answer

    Evacuation is not automatically the safest option in a bomb threat, since it can move people past an unlocated device or into an area chosen by an attacker. That risk judgment requires the facility plan and law enforcement expertise, so the decision rests with management and responding authorities. The guard's duty is to pass on complete and accurate information and then carry out the decision.

    Source: DHS/CISA Bomb Threat Guide — the three response options (evacuate, shelter in place, take no action) are chosen by facility management and law enforcementReport a problem with this question

22. 22. Gunfire erupts in a mall where you work unarmed. A clear exit corridor is behind you, but two customers refuse to leave. What should you do?

    • A.Move toward the gunfire to locate and disarm the shooter
    • B.Evacuate by the exit route, urging them to follow but not staying to force compliance, leave belongings behind, and call 911 once safe✓ Answer
    • C.Stay with the two customers until they agree to move, whatever the risk
    • D.Gather everyone in an open central area so you can count them before leaving

    Run is the first option when an accessible escape path exists, and official guidance is explicit that you evacuate regardless of whether others agree to follow, because you are not responsible for ensuring their compliance and delay may cost your own life. An unarmed guard is responsible for protecting their own life, not for confronting or disarming the shooter, and gathering people in the open exposes them.

    Source: DHS Run-Hide-Fight; CA BSIS Appropriate Use of Force manual, active shooter section — evacuate regardless of whether others follow; guard protects own lifeReport a problem with this question

23. 23. If you cannot run and must hide during an active shooter incident, which set of actions is correct?

    • A.Hide in a small closet with no other way out and keep your phone on vibrate
    • B.Stand near the doorway so you can look out and report the shooter's movements
    • C.Get out of view behind a locked and blockaded door, silence your phone, stay quiet, and if you call 911 and cannot speak, leave the line open✓ Answer
    • D.Fight the shooter first, since hiding only delays the confrontation

    An effective hiding place is out of the shooter's view, provides protection from gunfire, and does not trap you or restrict movement, which is why a small closet with no second way out is a poor choice. Phones must be silenced rather than set to vibrate, since vibration is audible in a quiet room. Leaving an open 911 line lets the dispatcher hear what is happening when you cannot speak, and fighting is a last resort only when life is in imminent danger.

    Source: DHS Run-Hide-Fight guidance — hide out of view, lock and blockade, silence phone, leave 911 line open; fight only as a last resortReport a problem with this question

24. 24. Armed officers enter the corridor where you are standing during an active threat response. What should you do?

    • A.Point down the hallway and shout instructions so the officers know where to go
    • B.Walk toward the officers with your flashlight raised so they can identify you as staff
    • C.Grab an officer's arm and lead him to the area where you last heard shots
    • D.Put down anything in your hands, raise your hands with fingers spread, keep them visible, avoid sudden movements, and do not stop officers to ask questions✓ Answer

    Responding officers move quickly toward the last shots heard and cannot immediately tell a uniformed guard from the threat, so anything held, any sudden movement, pointing, shouting or grabbing can be read as hostile. Empty visible hands with fingers spread is the universal signal that you are not a threat. Officers also will not stop to help the injured or give directions; rescue teams follow behind them.

    Source: DHS active shooter guidance on how to react when law enforcement arrives — put down items, raise hands with fingers spread, no sudden movements, do not stop officersReport a problem with this question

25. 25. An overturned drum in a loading dock is leaking an unknown liquid and giving off vapor. What is the correct action for an unarmed guard?

    • A.Use a mop and absorbent from the janitor's closet to contain the spill
    • B.Turn on the loading dock exhaust fans to blow the vapor away before reporting
    • C.Withdraw uphill and upwind, isolate the area and deny entry, and report the placard or NFPA 704 information and quantity to responders✓ Answer
    • D.Approach closely to read the small print on the label so the report is accurate

    Vapors and liquids travel downhill and downwind, so uphill and upwind is the only reliably safer position; approaching to read a label puts the guard inside the hazard zone. An unarmed guard is not a hazmat responder and has no protective equipment, so the role is to isolate, deny entry, and give responders the placard, NFPA 704 diamond or SDS information and estimated quantity, which is what determines their protective action.

    Source: Hazardous materials awareness-level response (DOT ERG, NFPA 704, OSHA HAZWOPER awareness level) — isolate and deny entry, stay uphill and upwind, report placard informationReport a problem with this question

Practice questions cover the uniform security-guard training core (observe-and-report, legal limits, emergencies). Not affiliated with any state agency. State licensing requirements and statutes vary — study your state's official course. Guard licensing info →